In a debate it's up to YOU to defend what you're saying.
It's not up to ME to do the work for you.
I'm not objecting to defending my view. I'm telling you that when you encounter a Scripture reference in my posts rather than the full verse or passage, that the reference is all I'm going to offer. If you want to know what the verse or passage actually says, you can do as I and others commonly do and look it up.
YOU must provide support for your statements...
I do. If you can't see this, I don't think you'll be capable of understanding much of anything I write.
THIS is the THEOLOGY FORUM and in theology one must be scriptural.
Maybe this particular forum does not require this...
but serious conversation does.
Yes, I understand this. And my posts clearly reflect this understanding.
I understand what you're saying very well.
No, as you demonstrate in nearly everything you write in response to my posts, you really don't. Mostly, you appear to be arguing against
your imagined and assumed version of what I've been writing rather than my actual views.
And so far, this is a waste of time.
Why not respond to my statements instead of making comments ABOUT them?
Please take your own advice, here.
Agreed.
So why not state this instead of saying that we can choose to disobey God?
And here you demonstrate - again - that you haven't grasped the substance of what I've written. (In particular in the characterization you make in your question.)
Here we go again.
NOW you're stating that we do NOT have to obey God.
No, this is
your Strawman version of what I've been writing.
I see no scripture supporting this odd idea that God does not require obedience from us.
And nowhere in my posts have I ever denied that God requires obedience from us. I've only refuted from Scripture the idea that our obedience contributes to, or maintains, our salvation. But, because you don't seem able to comprehend this, you "tilt at windmills" in your replies to me.
If a person is NOT obeying God....he is not a Christian.
Nope. I've already shown comprehensively from the NT that this is patently false. I'm not going to repeat all I've written on this point here, again. Suffice it to say that your repetition of this mistaken claim doesn't make it true and your attached prooftext - like all the others you've supplied - doesn't actually support your statement above.
Here's what John taught:
1 John 3:2-6
3 By this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments.
4 The one who says, "I have come to know Him," and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him;
5 but whoever * keeps His word, in him the love of God has truly been perfected. By this we know that we are in Him:
6 the one who says he abides in Him ought himself to walk in the same manner as He walked.
John also wrote:
1 John 1:8-10
8 If we say that we have no sin, we are deceiving ourselves and the truth is not in us.
9 If we confess our sins, He is faithful and righteous, so that He will forgive us our sins and cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
10 If we say that we have not sinned, we make Him a liar and His word is not in us.
What John DIDN'T write in the passage from
1 John 3 that you offered above - and wouldn't write, given the passage directly above - is anything like "...if we
always keep His commandments and
never sin, we can know that we know God." As has been pointed out very often about the passage from
1 John 3 that you've quoted, the phrase "does not keep His commandments" (
vs. 4) is poorly rendered in older translations of the Bible. Better translations correctly render it as follows:
Everyone who commits sin
practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness. (CSB)
Every one that practises sin
practises also lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness. (Darby)
Everyone who makes
a practice of sinning also practices lawlessness; sin is lawlessness. (ESV)
Everyone who
practices sin also practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness.(NASB)
Everyone who
practices sin also practices lawlessness; indeed, sin is lawlessness. (NET)
Anyway, the idea John is communicating about sin in the life of a born-again person is that it ought not to be a common practice of him, or her. Or, as the NASB puts it, "
No one in Him sins continually..." (
1 Jn. 3:6).
As I've been writing this all out, I realize that you've got the wrong Scripture reference attached to the passage you cited from
1 John 3. It's actually from
1 John 2 that you've drawn the passage, not
1 John 3, as you've got it labeled.
Here's the passage with its correct reference:
1 John 2:1-6
1 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous;
2 and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.
3 By this we know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments.
4 The one who says, “I have come to know Him,” and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him;
5 but whoever follows His word, in him the love of God has truly been perfected. By this we know that we are in Him:
6 the one who says that he remains in Him ought, himself also, to walk just as He walked.
I notice that your quotation of this passage leaves out the first verse. Interesting, that. I have my suspicions as to why. Suffice it to say,
verse 1 dissolves the idea that Christians don't - or can't - sin. John, in
verse 1, plainly indicates the opposite, that they can, and do, sin. In fact, in this regard he includes
himself in their company, using the pronoun "we" and "our" in speaking of Christ's advocacy for Christians who sin.