Is that His real name Jesus?

[Ancient]

Translating

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains).

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus.

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately.

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text.

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

If this interest you find out more www.anvcientfoundationbiblefellowship.com

 

[amadeus]

@Ancient Is correct pronouncement of the name used by people in the land of Israel 2000 years
more important than being IN the name? Even physically deaf mute person can be in the name of Jesus or Yeshua, even though he has never spoken the name with his physical mouth?

"For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them." Matt 18:20

 

[Robert Gwin]

Translating

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains).

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus.

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately.

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text.

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

If this interest you find out more www.anvcientfoundationbiblefellowship.com

Joshua is closer like you mentioned, but I also think God protects His word, since all English versions refer to God's son by the name Jesus, I am sure that it is acceptable to both Jehovah as well as Jesus.

 

[quietthinker]

Translating

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains).

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus.

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately.

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text.

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

If this interest you find out more www.anvcientfoundationbiblefellowship.com

I glean from your post you do not speak a second language, Ancient?

 

[Ancient]

@Ancient Is correct pronouncement of the name used by people in the land of Israel 2000 years
more important than being IN the name? Even physically deaf mute person can be in the name of Jesus or Yeshua, even though he has never spoken the name with his physical mouth?

"For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them." Matt 18:20

Just need to clear up a statement friend. Matt 18:20 is a legal term to do with making decisions within an assembly/congregation. When 2 or 3 agree it is as if God was there in the midst of them establishing the decision being made as the context is whatever you loose and whatever you bind on earth and heaven shall be done. Loosing is allowing something, binding is not allowing something.

Shalom friend

 

[Ancient]

Joshua is closer like you mentioned, but I also think God protects His word, since all English versions refer to God's son by the name Jesus, I am sure that it is acceptable to both Jehovah as well as Jesus.

Yes I understand. I am not picking on people who use the name Jesus. I am raising awareness and getting people to understand about translation and not all is at it seems in translated versions of the original. This has totally transformed the way I read the bible and my relationship with God. God also says He is restoring all things and I believe part of that is the restoration and understanding of the Original Hebrew language.

Shalom friend

 

[Curtis]

Translating

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains).

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus.

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately.

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text.

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

If this interest you find out more www.anvcientfoundationbiblefellowship.com

They don’t use His Hebrew name, because the NT is in Greek - the apostles of Jesus also called God theos instead of Yahweh, Eliohim, Adonai, etc.

I’m pretty sure the all-knowing God understands all languages and has no trouble understanding that Y'eshua was translated as Iesous in Greek, and Jesus in English.

At least you didn’t use the claim that the pagan God Zeus is in the NT instead of Y’eshua, because Iesous sounds like Zeus - or is that found in the link you gave?

 

[amadeus]

Just need to clear up a statement friend. Matt 18:20 is a legal term to do with making decisions within an assembly/congregation. When 2 or 3 agree it is as if God was there in the midst of them establishing the decision being made as the context is whatever you loose and whatever you bind on earth and heaven shall be done. Loosing is allowing something, binding is not allowing something.

Shalom friend

Perhaps in places things are done as you say, but you sidestepped around my point. Be blessed!

 

[Enoch111]

So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

The King James translators were following the Greek spellings and text. And there is no "Yeshua" in Greek for Jesus. It is no big deal. Jesus is found as a translation in every language. And at this point the English speaking world (which is actually everyone) is quite conversant with "Jesus".

 

[Robert Gwin]

Yes I understand. I am not picking on people who use the name Jesus. I am raising awareness and getting people to understand about translation and not all is at it seems in translated versions of the original. This has totally transformed the way I read the bible and my relationship with God. God also says He is restoring all things and I believe part of that is the restoration and understanding of the Original Hebrew language.

Shalom friend

It very well could be sir. We believe Hebrew was the original language. Although the Bible doesn't go into that much detail about things like that, but I fully agree the earth will likely be restored to one language, and logically that would be Hebrew. It is noteworthy that Joshua and Jesus are actually the same word by definition, truly does not change the meaning. Both mean literally: Jehovah is salvation. I do not know why translators of English versions chose Jesus over Joshua, but they literally are the same word.

 

[DPMartin]

Translating

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains).

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus.

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately.

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text.

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

If this interest you find out more www.anvcientfoundationbiblefellowship.com

why don't you call on the name of Jesus Christ, and find out.

 

[Curtis]

It very well could be sir. We believe Hebrew was the original language. Although the Bible doesn't go into that much detail about things like that, but I fully agree the earth will likely be restored to one language, and logically that would be Hebrew. It is noteworthy that Joshua and Jesus are actually the same word by definition, truly does not change the meaning. Both mean literally: Jehovah is salvation. I do not know why translators of English versions chose Jesus over Joshua, but they literally are the same word.

Jehovah is not found in any Hebrew manuscript- it’s a made-up name.

The WTS claims to have restored the name of Jehovah - only problem there, is someone combined the consonants of YHWH with the vowels in ADONAI to get the added third syllable of the made up name..

That’s how the two syllable Yahweh ended up with three syllables.

It’s a transliteration of two words.

Isn’t it Amazing that the WTBTS “restored” a made-up name for Yahweh?

 

[Robert Gwin]

Jehovah is not found in any Hebrew manuscript- it’s a made-up name.

The WTS claims to have restored the name of Jehovah - only problem there, is someone combined the consonants of YHWH with the vowels in ADONAI to get the added third syllable of the made up name..

That’s how the two syllable Yahweh ended up with three syllables.

It’s a transliteration of two words.

Isn’t it Amazing that the WTBTS “restored” a made-up name for Yahweh?

Yahweh is the Hebrew form Curt, Jehovah is English. Every English Bible that translates the Divine Name renders it Jehovah. Since He prevented it's removal from the King James Version of the Bible, I believe that He fully accepts that. Adonai is unrelated, it simply is rendered Lord when translated into English.

 

[BroRando]

Translating

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains).

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus.

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately.

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text.

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

If this interest you find out more www.anvcientfoundationbiblefellowship.com

We have a Bible Exhibit that includes an original King James Bible from 1611. It was called the (He) Bible. Find out why.
Watch Video...

 

[Curtis]

Yahweh is the Hebrew form Curt, Jehovah is English. Every English Bible that translates the Divine Name renders it Jehovah. Since He prevented it's removal from the King James Version of the Bible, I believe that He fully accepts that. Adonai is unrelated, it simply is rendered Lord when translated into English.

The name Yahweh, nor Jehovah, are found in the NT - theos is the only name or title for God in the New Testament koine Greek manuscripts - the watchtower added the transliterated form of the Hebrew to their very poor NWT version. then claim to have restored the name Jehovah to the New Testament.

All they did was put Hebrew into a koine Greek NT.

 

[BroRando]

The name Yahweh, nor Jehovah, are found in the NT - theos is the only name or title for God in the New Testament koine Greek manuscripts - the watchtower added the transliterated form of the Hebrew to their very poor NWT version. then claim to have restored the name Jehovah to the New Testament.

All they did was put Hebrew into a koine Greek NT.

The name Yeshua, nor Jesus, are found in the NT - theos is the title for a god and ton theon for the God in the New Testament koine Greek manuscripts - Christendom added the transliterated form of the Hebrew to their very poor NIV version. then claim to have restored the name Jehovah to the New Testament.

♕400th Anniversary - Hallowing the Divine Name♕

All they did was put Hebrew into a koine Greek NT. It's all English.... let me help you E N G L I S H
Jesus means 'Jehovah Is Salvation'
Elijah means 'My God is Jehovah'

And Jesus answered and said unto him, Get thee behind me, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the LORD, ( Jehovah Deu 6:13; Deu 10:20 ) thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.

 

[Taken]

ALL of our "NAMES" are temporary.
" EVEN names we SPEAK, we CALL:
our Lord, our God".

We being "accounted Changed" BY PROMISE to Complete the "CHANGE"...
still "physically exist"...

Meaning...NO Earthly physically Existing man, is "HOLY enough to KNOW, HEAR, SPEAK....
Gods TRUE NAME, or SEE God AS HE IS.

WHO? "I AM that I AM"....
Believing in ones HEART, that God,
"IS WHO HE IS"...is sufficient.
God Himself, KNOWS a mans Heart.
And ONE DAY, A "changed" man...
WILL, SEE the Lord God....AS HE IS.
WILL, HEAR the Lord Gods VOICE...AS He IS.
^^^^THAT IS a Converted mans REWARD...
FOR CONVERTING.

Glory to God, who IS who HE IS,
Taken

 

[quietthinker]

ALL of our "NAMES" are temporary.
" EVEN names we SPEAK, we CALL:
our Lord, our God".

We being "accounted Changed" BY PROMISE to Complete the "CHANGE"...
still "physically exist"...

Meaning...NO Earthly physically Existing man, is "HOLY enough to KNOW, HEAR, SPEAK....
Gods TRUE NAME, or SEE God AS HE IS.

WHO? "I AM that I AM"....
Believing in ones HEART, that God,
"IS WHO HE IS"...is sufficient.
God Himself, KNOWS a mans Heart.
And ONE DAY, A "changed" man...
WILL, SEE the Lord God....AS HE IS.
WILL, HEAR the Lord Gods VOICE...AS He IS.
^^^^THAT IS a Converted mans REWARD...
FOR CONVERTING.

Glory to God, who IS who HE IS,
Taken

'Name' is code for character

 

[KoT]

Translating

When translating from one language to another one of the many rules are that you use the closest sound for the letter you are translating to from the letter you are translating from. This is for proper nouns especially the names of people (names) places (cities, rivers, mountains).

For example Moses in Hebrew is Mosheh, translated to Greek is Moseus and then English Moses. You can see the similarities of sound through out the translation process. the us on the end of the Greek Moseus is making it masculine.

Why is not the same process used for the name Jesus. Let me explain.

In Hebrew the name of the one most call Jesus is Yeshua which literally means salvation or deliverance. Translated into Greek it is Ieseus. Greek does not have the y sound so the closest sound is the I sound. Again like above with Moseus the Greek adds the us on the end to make is masculine. So we have Ieseus in Greek. Now the problem. We have all the sounds of Yeshua in our English language. So why not translate is as Yeshua?

Now let me add this to my point the letter J was introduced into the English language in around the mid 1600's and not in common use for say another 50 - 100 yrs. So at best the name Jesus is only around 300 yrs old not very long in the scheme of things. To also validate my point in the 1611 version of the KJV there is no Jesus why because there was no letter J in the English language. In the 1611 KJV it is Iesus very close translation to the Greek Ieseus.

The question is why, why have translations chosen not to accurately translate His Hebrew name Yeshua which means salvation and deliverance. You may say well what's the big deal. It is a very very big deal. I can definitely tell you that there are many other occurrences like this in English translations. I will give you another gross deliberate changing of the text. You better sit down.

The Book of James in the NT is not James! It is Jacob or in Hebrew Yakov. So again why completely and deliberately change the name of a book of the NT? There are some theories which include that King James wanted his name in the bible. Another one is the Yakov or Jacob is Jewish and we can't have that now can we. Maybe the same reason why they have chosen not to translate His Hebrew name Yeshua accurately.

Friends stuff like this has sadly happened more than most would know, it is deceitful, lying and leads people to read the text in a certain light. The knowledge of this has changed my life and the way I study the Bible, armed with this knowledge my relationship with God who I refer to as Yahweh again the text says LORD a total misrepresentation of the Hebrew language. When the bible is studied from this perspective it totally transforms the word of God and the whole book starts to make sense and all the puzzle pieces fit nicely together. All the perceived contradictions just fade away and you see the Original text is truly the infallible word of God not the translation of the original text.

Shalom Friends I really hope that this gets you all thinking.

If this interest you find out more www.anvcientfoundationbiblefellowship.com

I have a legitimate question in reply to your statement in your post:
Do you know His new name?

 

[Taken]

'Name' is code for character

Sure... Names reflective of the character.
"People" pick names the "like".
(And not always "befitting").
God HAS and will assign names "befitting" the character.

Glory to God,
Taken