GINOLJC to all.
"YESHUA". the Strong's # is (H3442), and it is written Yod-Shin-Vav-Ayin, it is a masculine noun that means "He is salvation" or "He saves”. for only God SAVES. In the Greek, it's G2424 Ἰησοῦς Iesous (ee-ay-sous`) n/p.
1. Jesus (i.e. Jehoshua) [of Hebrew origin (H3091)] of, of, of, not is Hebrew origin, hence the no J.
KJV: Jesus
Root(s): H3091
of Hebrew origin?, from where? H3091, which gets its orgins from H3068 which originates from H1961 הָיָה hayah, or “I AM”, which the LORD told Moses in his asking “WHAT” is your name. here again we see that YHWH is used as an verb in describing “WHAT” the Lord JESUS, God is. “I AM”, which is the subject, as our grammar definition states is not the personal name. Isaiah 52:6 "Therefore my people shall know my name: therefore they shall know in that day that I am he that doth speak: behold, it is I". when did God speak so that they knew that it was him, answer, John 8:21 "Then said Jesus again unto them, I go my way, and ye shall seek me, and shall die in your sins: whither I go, ye cannot come. 22 Then said the Jews, Will he kill himself? because he saith, Whither I go, ye cannot come. 23 And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world. 24 I said therefore unto you, that ye shall die in your sins: for if ye believe not that I am he, ye shall die in your sins". here clearly we see God plainly telling them that he, JESUS is “I”. listen again even from a different scripture, Isaiah 43:10" Ye are my witnesses, saith the LORD, and my servant whom I have chosen: that ye may know and believe me, and understand that I am he: before me there was no God formed, neither shall there be after me”. how plain can one get. John 8:28" Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things”. One other question, what is the difference between Lord and God. 1 Corinthians 8:5 "For though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many,) 6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him". ONE LORD and ONE GOD, where have we heard this before at?. two places Deuteronomy 6:4 "Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD" But to us there is but one God, who is this one God? the Father. and the one Lord Jesus Christ. John 20:28 "And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God." the one Lord is God. 1 Corinthians 8:7a "Howbeit there is not in every man that knowledge".
So by being no "J" at that time, true, there was no "J" in the Hebrew language, but the direction, or SCRIPTURAL TRAIL as to who YESHUA is, is without a doubt the one in the GREEk Language identified as the transliteral name "JESUS", G2424 Ἰησοῦς Iesous (yee-sous'). that transliterated name is found in scriptures. so there is no argument that YESHUA is the G2424 Ἰησοῦς Iesous (yee-sous') in the texts.
in the English language today, which is the dominant language of these last DAYS. Glory to Jesus. God say that he will not give his "GLORY" to another. Isaiah 48:11 "For mine own sake, even for mine own sake, will I do it: for how should my name be polluted? and I will not give my glory unto another". listen to Jesus, John 17:5 "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was". so there is only one God and that means only one GLORY. and if Jesus is another as in G2087 heteros, as oppose to being G243 allos with God, then God lied in Isaiah 48:11, God forbid. so the only conclusion is that Jesus is God in flesh as the G 243 allos with God. and the name of God, both the Father, and Son is JESUS, the Greek G2424 Ἰησοῦς Iesous (yee-sous'), now transliterated in the dominant language of today as "JESUS". there is no getting around it. the trace of the Name is in the Scriptures from "I AM", the existing one to Jesus, the one who saves.
Zephaniah 3:9 "For then will I turn to the people a pure language, that they may all call upon the name of the LORD, to serve him with one consent". and who said that Hebrew is the only and pure Language?
PURE here in Zephaniah 3:9 is the Hebrew word,
H1305 בָּרַר barar (baw-rar') v.
1. to clarify (i.e. brighten).
2. to examine.
3. to select.
[a primitive root]
KJV: make bright, choice, chosen, cleanse (be clean), clearly, polished, (shew self) pure(-ify), purge (out).
Clarify and brighten simply convey "TO MAKE KNOWN". for at the time of John's writing the name was NOT KNOWN, Revelation 19:12 "His eyes were as a flame of fire, and on his head were many crowns; and he had a name written, that no man knew, but he himself."
so NO "J" at John's writing, but NOW KNOWN, because of the English Language, the dominant language. BINGO.
PICJAG.
