Are Gentiles, who've never heard of John, "born of the will of man" and in need of being "born of the Spirit" to enter God's spiritual Kingdom?John's call to repentance. Nothing more than natural birth of man's doing.
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Are Gentiles, who've never heard of John, "born of the will of man" and in need of being "born of the Spirit" to enter God's spiritual Kingdom?John's call to repentance. Nothing more than natural birth of man's doing.
Just answer the question anyway. You know John's baptism for repentance is repentance to the law.It's not even relevant.
You're trying to reinvent the wheel.Just answer the question anyway. You know John's baptism for repentance is repentance to the law.
So, this Gospel was purposefully designed so as to be unintelligible to the person who only has it--it was designed so as only to be intelligible to people who have another book? We can't reliably obtain its understanding from itself?Just answer the question anyway. You know John's baptism for repentance is repentance to the law.
Acts calls them, for example, 'God fearing Greeks'. The people of God have always had gentiles living and worshipping among them. Right from the Exodus.Are Gentiles, who've never heard of John, "born of the will of man" and in need of being "born of the Spirit" to enter God's spiritual Kingdom?
You realize there're people who don't even believe in God (eg, Buddhists) who eventually get saved?Acts calls them, for example, 'God fearing Greeks'. The people of God have always had gentiles living and worshipping among them. Right from the Exodus.
I don't think the early church had any problem knowing what 'water' was in John 3:5. In fact, I think the church fathers are on record as saying it means water baptism.So, this Gospel was purposefully designed so as to be unintelligible to the person who only has it--it was designed so as only to be intelligible to people who have another book? We can't reliably obtain its understanding from itself?
So, according to you, when Jesus was conversing with Nicodemus, He wasn't addressing Nicodemus's statements, He was addressing Paul's. All right, gotcha. I reject it of course but I understand.Acts calls them, for example, 'God fearing Greeks'. The people of God have always had gentiles living and worshipping among them. Right from the Exodus.
I don't see your point. If they lived in Israel in the time of John the Baptist, the call to repentance is for them too.You realize there're people who don't even believe in God (eg, Buddhists) who eventually get saved?
Yeah, they also taught that Mary was the "New Eve" and that's been debunked. LOLI don't think the early church had any problem knowing what 'water' was in John 3:5. In fact, I think the church fathers are on record as saying it means water baptism.
I already explained this to you. Jesus is explaining John's baptism for repentance—repentance to the law—births natural men who don't inherit the kingdom. One must also be born a spiritual person to inherit the kingdom.So, according to you, when Jesus was conversing with Nicodemus, He wasn't addressing Nicodemus's statements, He was addressing Paul's. All right, gotcha. I reject it of course but I understand.
No, the early church fathers are not the Catholic church fathers, lol. Not even close. The Catholic church is a 3rd century invention if I'm not mistaken on that time.Yeah, they also taught that Mary was the "New Eve" and that's been debunked. LOL
Their understandings aren't definitive.
BTW the ECFs didn't take "water baptism" there as "John's baptism".I don't see your point. If they lived in Israel in the time of John the Baptist, the call to repentance is for them too.
No, Jesus is conversing with Nicodemus, and what Nicodemus misunderstands is that he does not need to climb back into his mother's womb and come back out again to be "born again" he needs a spiritual birth.I already explained this to you. Jesus is explaining John's baptism for repentance births natural men who don't inherit the kingdom. One must also be born a spiritual person to inherit the kingdom.
Irenaeus, the one who invented that rubbish, was the disciple of Polycarp who was the disciples of John. Right there. Nothing to do with 3rd century anything. Nothing to do with Catholic Church.No, the early church fathers are not the Catholic church fathers, lol. Not even close. The Catholic church is a 3rd century invention if I'm not mistaken on that time.
Yes they did, there in John 3, not baptism after the resurrection.BTW the ECFs didn't take "water baptism" there as "John's baptism".
Okay, good. You've confirmed that the early church understood John 3 to be talking about John's baptism.Irenaeus, the one who invented that rubbish, was the disciple of Polycarp who was the disciples of John. Right there. Nothing to do with 3rd century anything. Nothing to do with Catholic Church.
I'm pretty sure I've heard that the ECFs interpreted "water and Spirit" as referring to "water baptism in the Name of Jesus is the instrument by which we are reborn spiritually" not "John's water baptism, which only births natural men, and then the Spirit birth)".Yes, there in John 3, not baptism after the resurrection.
Not in the slightest. You are obsessed with being "special" for having "discovered" a new doctrine. It is not godly.Okay, good. You've confirmed that the early church understood John 3 to be talking about John's baptism.
I don't think anyone argues with that point. I think we all know that New Covenant water baptism is connected to the spiritual birth in Acts.I'm pretty sure I've heard that the ECFs interpreted "water and Spirit" as referring to "water baptism in the Name of Jesus is the instrument by which we are reborn spiritually
Again, I often reject the ECFs and I reject their interpretation (ie, they interpret "water" in "water and Spirit" as meaning "baptism in the Name of the Father the Son and the Spirit" not "John's baptism") here as well.Okay, good. You've confirmed that the early church understood John 3 to be talking about John's baptism.
You're arguing against it now. LOL You're trying to say the ECFs thought "water" in "water and Spirit" of John 3 referred to John's baptism not New Testament baptism whereby they said people were "born again".I don't think anyone argues with that point. I think we all know that New Covenant water baptism is connected to the spiritual birth in Acts.