Do you think Jesus before Matt 3:16 was a sinner like us?
Depends on how you look at it.
Jesus was reverend as a great rabbi of the Jews even from a young age, teachings their laws for sin and death.
If you are a devout catholic and a priest or pope, are you a sinner, or a Mormon or a Jehovah witness, Muslim, how do you view them, are the sinners? How do they view themselves if they are devout to those creeds of man. They do not see themselves as sinners but the see others that are of a different creed as a sinners. Just watch how these who are Baptists to some other creed view Catholics as sinner, of the devil.
Thank God I am not of any of hose but of God Himself as Jesus was and all of these are supposed to be in His same image instead of the image of any of these.
But just as Jesus was, I also was of one of these belief systems unto the same God Who came to Jesus came to me. Then to these I became a blasphemer, sinner because they could not relate to the same God who came to Jesus came to me.
Now when Jesus was about 30 years old and God came to that man and opened up who He is and all of His heaven in Jesus by the spirit that He is, what happened? He became a sinner, blasphemer, sabbath breaker, wine bibber, gluten, to the creed of the ones he once taught this was for that creed.
What is so ironic is the very ones he once taught as rabbi are th every ones who has him crucified as a sinner. In that I can identify the very same in me.
By mans laws for a god Jesus was not a sinner, nor was I. but by God laws that he became of, we became sinner by the things we suffered from man.
Now, we have the very same scenario today so obvious in this very forum. By their laws for their beliefs just as the Jews did the same with Jesus do the same with we who has received the very same from God as Jesus did became what? Blasphemers, why? Because the god they have created in their own minds, own image, that of a man, they cannot relate at all to the God who is a Spirit and resides in man.
For that very same reason as Jesus was accused of, I have been called of the devil, a blasphemer, sinner, claiming to be God just as they falsely accused Jesus of being even to this day only because we say we are Son of God making us equal with Him. Which by the way we are supposed to be.
We are innocent of all those false charges only because they cannot relate to the same God who was in Christ Jesus, in Adam in Gen 3:22, in Abraham, Moses Mary, 120, and me and all this day who has received the same God as these did.
We are blasphemers to these, but the real truth they even accuse Jesus of blaspheme claiming he was God himself. when Jesus was very very clear that he was not. but they still do not listen to him today just like they didnt listen to him 2000 years ago. And here is Jesus proof that he was not god and these push this aide and do not even read it.
So was Jesus as sinner before God made him pure in Himself? Not to the Jews, only after Matt 3:16.
Man doesnt know he is a sinner until God Himself comes and changes his whole disposition into holiness, perfect heaven as our Father in heaven is perfect, one cant even know what sin is.
Sin is not killing, stealing, chasing the neighbors wife, those things are only result from sin. Sin to Gpod is separation from His own Spirit be your own, that of Love, If one truly is of God who is Love and walk in it as He walks in it, one is not going to kill, one is going to love his neighbor just as he does himself without biased opinions, one is not going to covent another. And that sperartion from GHod to not be like Him is the only sin that God cannot forgive at all and that is every mans choice if they want Gods same SPOirit of Love as their own, or had they rater follow the creeds of mans laws who write their own laws for sin?
You be the judge, Was Jesus as sninner before Matt 3:16? Depends on who you ask. By God whom Jesus didnt know at all proven in Matt 3:16, God says to be separated from Him is the only sin. and after Matt 3;16when Jesus was united with God as one and became perfect even as his Father inehaven is perfect.
BTW the Father who is in heaven is not the same father of man.
The earthly father of Yosef(Joseph), the husband of Mary, was Heli, it is told at Luke 3:23.
There is some confusion on this topic which you may be aware of and is why you’re asking this question.
There is a mistranslation in modern Bibles from the Greek which includes the KJV, in the 1st chapter of Matthew, it mistranslates "father" to "husband".
Due to this simple mistranslation, people for years have been confused concerning the genealogies of the Messiah, Mary, and Joseph, and you can see many people making up a lot of stuff to try and feel better about the confusion.
This may have even helped cause some people to lose faith in the scriptures because of the modern Christians confusing this verse and making it look like the Gospels do not know the genealogies.
This mistranslation can be major because this is the very start of the gospels, and it can potentially lead people into thinking that it says the Messiah is not the son of David, when it's known that the Messiah would be from David's line.
Also, the mistranslation causes a contradiction with Matthew 1:17.
Verse 17 states that there are 14 generations from Abraham to David, then from David until the Babylon captivity are 14 generations, and then from the Babylon captivity to the Messiah there are 14 generations;
Matthew 1:17 "So all the generations from Abraham to David are 14 generations, from David until the captivity in Babylon are 14 generations, and from the captivity in Babylon until the Messiah are 14 generations"
This actually helps us confirm the mistranslation, and when the mistranslation is corrected, there is absolutely no contradiction.