There is a disconnect between the Synoptics’ association of John the Baptist with Elijah (Matt. 11:13-14; Mark 9:13; Luke 1:17) and John’s denial of it (John 1:21). Given that John wrote last, and must have been aware of the tradition that connected the Baptist with the OT prophet, what explains the shift in the Fourth Gospel?
It may be that we should distinguish between the literal answer (John) and the figurative answer (Synoptics) to whether John the Baptist was Elijah. But that presumption needs to be considered in the light of another difference. Only John’s gospel puts the prophecy from Is. 40:3 in the mouth of the Baptist. The Synoptics simply say this of him. That suggests a measure of self-awareness (in John’s account) about the Baptist’s role. So if we are to presume that the Baptist was just being literal, we must also conclude that he literally disassociated Elijah’s return and the Isaiah prophecy.
And I can’t imagine why that would be. Surely the Baptist wasn’t ignorant of Mal. 3:1’s traditional association with Is. 40:3 -- and with Elijah (through Mal. 4:5). Nor would the people he was addressing have been unaware, when he denied being Elijah and in the very next breath admitted being the path-straightener. They were probably scratching their heads, just as I am right now.
Any thoughts on the Baptist's disclaimer in John's gospel?
It may be that we should distinguish between the literal answer (John) and the figurative answer (Synoptics) to whether John the Baptist was Elijah. But that presumption needs to be considered in the light of another difference. Only John’s gospel puts the prophecy from Is. 40:3 in the mouth of the Baptist. The Synoptics simply say this of him. That suggests a measure of self-awareness (in John’s account) about the Baptist’s role. So if we are to presume that the Baptist was just being literal, we must also conclude that he literally disassociated Elijah’s return and the Isaiah prophecy.
And I can’t imagine why that would be. Surely the Baptist wasn’t ignorant of Mal. 3:1’s traditional association with Is. 40:3 -- and with Elijah (through Mal. 4:5). Nor would the people he was addressing have been unaware, when he denied being Elijah and in the very next breath admitted being the path-straightener. They were probably scratching their heads, just as I am right now.
Any thoughts on the Baptist's disclaimer in John's gospel?
