I have a question for the KJVO crowd. If the KJV is the "pure word of God" what was the pure word of God before the KJV? Please give us a timeline from 50AD to 1611AD what the pure word of God was in detail with support.
Thanks.
There is no "pure word of God" in English (or in any other language other than the originals). a) The originals don't exist (or have never been found). The earliest texts are copies and, because they were created by humans, differ from each other, sometimes significantly. b) It is
impossible for several reasons -- meaning of words, verb tenses, idioms, etc. -- to create a perfect translation into the destination language.
Translation is (and always has been) the work of fallible people. There is no reason to doubt that they try their best to give us the best results possible in our language, but there will never be a
perfect translation from the sources to the destination language. Modern translations (almost without exception) try to give us the best rendition of the words
and meaning of the earliest and best sources,
derived from multiple sources that are carefully examined and compared with each other. Claims that they are based solely on The Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece, including the latest version are nonsense, as are claims that they promote the ideas of the Catholic church.
Regarding the King James translation, it was created for a specific purpose: to "correct" the work of earlier translators so that the result would be to glorify a
secular monarch and codify his personal brand of Christianity. In other words, "what King James says is the pure truth". It's laughable that some people see his personal opinion of what the Bible should say as being God's truth. King James never was God (although he liked to think of himself in that manner).