Luther 100% correct in his actions?

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Jordan

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You know, actually Byzantine Texts and Alexandrian Texts never goes along so well. So yes there is a difference, actually major difference between bibles.Jag
Jag, We should not switch topics to textual concerns in a discussion about the Canon. Are you trying to change your answer, or do you stand by your first claim that the Spirit told you that the shorter canon was the one to use. No need to switch topics. In the 4th century and though the issue had been a hot topic for centuries, whenever it came up the list grew longer, but once on an agreed to list Rome never took a book off. The longer canon was established as a list officially by Pope Damasus in 382 in directing a new translation, the Latin version, we call the Vulgate. That same canon is used by the Church today. The Alexandrian and Byzantine textual differences between VERSIONS which has nothing to do with canons and primarily concern the NT as far as textual concerns go, and in any case I would not consider those differences MAJOR even though there are significant differences in text. It is no different than comparing KJV with RSV or NIV…etc, the canon is not the point because the canons are the same between versions.Yes, there is MAJOR difference between them and I'm sure it can fit into the canon conservation... Just a thought...JagLovest thou in Christ Yahshua, Lord and Saviour of the world.
 

DrBubbaLove

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Yes, there is MAJOR difference between them and I'm sure it can fit into the canon conservation... Just a thought...JagLovest thou in Christ Yahshua, Lord and Saviour of the world.
Whether one thinks the difference are major or minor, both texts included more books in the OT than you use today, so at least from that perspective it has no bearing on the OPs question.
 

DrBubbaLove

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My question has gone unanswered. Is there anything in the dropped books that we need that we don't have in the shorter version of the canon we have now? That is what is important. If no information is missing, then what's the problem. The gospel message is the same throughout with great consistency. That may be the problem with the extra books. Are they consistent with the rest of the Bible?
Am aware of only one possible issue most Protestants and Luther would have and it only involves two books, the Macabees (actually only one of those). It is the clearest and only explicit example of someone praying for the dead. From my experience with discussions like this, am not aware of any such specific objection to 6 of the 7 other books.Given that praying for the dead or not doing it, does not really effect the Gospel message, and if that was really your only question, then I guess you can consider it answered. However, the fact that this is the ONLY Protestant objection to these books one wonders how to justify rejecting all 7 and not just the one book. Some, but not all Hebrew manuscripts exclude all seven books. My understanding is that some ancient Jewish scholars/groups did so for many reasons, but primarily because these were not originally written in Hebrew and are relatively newer than other OT books. The non-Hebrew claim is weak as it could possibly be made against a few other OT books. This group of Jewish scholars not accepting the Greek version of the OT existed before Jesus day, but they were still around and apparently in the minority in Jesus day. The collection of writings in use by most Jewish scholars of Jesus day would include these later writings as the Greek Septuigent appears to have been the most commonly used at that time. From our NT writings it is clear the Apostles and Jesus were familar with the Greek version of the OT and that is the version that contains these 7 books.Both Jesus and the Apostles either reference directly or allude to OT passages including some from these books. But not every OT book gets a NT reference, so a decision to either exclude or include particular OT books cannot be said to be based on NT use alone. The fact these books are referenced at all in Jesus time at least indicates people knew of them and were familar enough with these writings for speakers to use with the expectation that people would get the connection. But beyond direct referencing or even alluding to, it is a fact these seven books where in the Greek version of the Jewish OT being widely used in Jesus time. Prayer for the dead is a part of the support of the idea of Purgatory, which gives us the idea of indulgences. Abuses of the practice of indulgences were a problem in the Church when Luther was a Priest. A problem that needed correcting and was one of the main beefs Luther had, one that he was trying to change (rather than leave the Church). The protest for change escalated, egos on both sides became involved and the initial cry for correction became something else entirely. To totally reject the teaching of indulgences however, the main problem of Purgatory and any scripture supporting prayer for the dead would need to be addressed.As a Priest, Luther would know the Macabees reference, the teachings of the Church and the sources of ancient Hebrew text. The solution for Luther to getting rid of the objectionable passage in Macabees was made easy by appealing to the use of ONLY Hebrew manuscripts which exclude ALL 7 of these later books (later in relation to age of most other OT books). Remove Macabees and the most explicit reference to prayer for the dead is gone. Keep in mind that for nearly 1500 years no one had made such an objection and in fact some translation prior to Luther's used/referenced all available manuscripts. It is only by holding one set of ancient copies of the OT over another that we can arrive at the shorter canon. Luther had a reason for wanting to exclude only one of those books. Does it necessarily follow that the Spirit led his justification for deleting the other 6?
 

Christina

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My question has gone unanswered. Is there anything in the dropped books that we need that we don't have in the shorter version of the canon we have now? That is what is important. If no information is missing, then what's the problem. The gospel message is the same throughout with great consistency. That may be the problem with the extra books. Are they consistent with the rest of the Bible?
No His by grace the only things these books say does not change anything we get from our text it adds things like history in Maccabees the fact is they did not measure up to the rules of those putting the Bible together set forth in my earlier post they either had contradictions couldnt be proved not to have been tampered with or some other reason. Doesnt mean they are wrong or right just for reasonsnot always explained they didnt measure up I see Drbubba has pointed out one contradiction Gods Word must be perfect God has foretold us all things thats good enough for me I trust it ended up as he wanted it. Thats called Faith You can read those other books but it changes nothing the writters may have been good men but that doesnt mean there were not mistakes or contradictions and for Gods Holy Word to be error free it had to be how it is
 

DrBubbaLove

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Jag,My Bible has no contradictions. I do see how you would think it would, but that is a matter of interpretation. As Protestants are free to interpret however they like, am not sure what good leaving those seven books in or out makes.
 

Jordan

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Jag,My Bible has no contradictions. I do see how you would think it would, but that is a matter of interpretation. As Protestants are free to interpret however they like, am not sure what good leaving those seven books in or out makes.
Alexandrian Texts? Those texts contradict themselves quite clearly. Modern versions of the "bible" so do contradict themselves...I wouldn't use a texts that attacks Him.JagLovest thou in Christ Yahshua, Lord and Saviour of the world.
 

horsecamp

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Luther only removed what others had snuck in .he was a zillion times correct in doing so.even the word apocraha means spearious or not genuineThe early Jews kept these writting far away from Gods word .Jesus never recognized any of the apocrapha as Gods inspired word .how we Got our bible and what about the apocrapha?About the apocrapha is found on page "30" about halph way down the page.pages are numbered on the right.http://www.wlsessays.net/authors/W/WarnkeB...WarnkeBible.PDF
 

DrBubbaLove

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Alexandrian Texts? Those texts contradict themselves quite clearly. Modern versions of the "bible" so do contradict themselves...I wouldn't use a texts that attacks Him.JagLovest thou in Christ Yahshua, Lord and Saviour of the world.
Could you re-phrase. I have no idea what you are saying or how it relates to our prior exchange. You said "contradiction" in reference to my pointing out that the ONLY problem Protestants have had with the seven books is the single reference in Maccabees to praying for the dead. Nothing from any of the other books or the rest of Maccabees. I said I do not see that reference as a contradiction because my interpretation of scripture is different from yours. You reply "the text contradicts clearly" .... perhaps I am missing something here but in case you did not realize it; I said that you would see the prayer for the dead in Maccabees as a contradiction (just as I don't see it as such). So are you just confirming what I already said or making some other point?
 

DrBubbaLove

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Luther only removed what others had snuck in .he was a zillion times correct in doing so.even the word apocraha means spearious or not genuineThe early Jews kept these writting far away from Gods word .Jesus never recognized any of the apocrapha as Gods inspired word .how we Got our bible and what about the apocrapha?About the apocrapha is found on page "30" about halph way down the page.pages are numbered on the right.http://www.wlsessays.net/authors/W/WarnkeB...WarnkeBible.PDF
Snuck in, that is rich horsecamp. Somebody is playing sneaky with history here. Let's get the story straighter.Actually the word Apocrypha derives from the Greek APOKRYPHOS which means "hidden" and it was in use long before Christ. We agree that in the time of Christ and later the early Church, the connotation of the word changed to something much more negative. And the Church labeled many, many, many books apocrypha as part of the process of excluding them from the developing NT canon. That large group includes writings of Christian, Jewish and heretic origins and the context was not always bad or wrong, just not to be added to the Bible canon. What is untrue is that ANYONE in the Christian world EVER referred to these seven books as APOCRYPHA until Luther’s day. As mentioned earlier, in plotting to remove the objectionable material, Luther just labeled the books APOCRYPHA and gave as his justification that the Jews rejected the same books. (failing to mention the Jews did not object to these books prior to 90AD long after the Apostles were already using the Septuignet which included them).As the Septuagint comes to us from the Jews and predates Christ by at least over a century (300-150 BC), if anybody is doing sneaking around here it was the Jews translating there own sacred writings into Greek. All in the world the early Church later did was take this same JEWISH version of the OT and translate it into LATIN. So no matter what else you wish to claim, the LONGER OT canon has been around much longer than Christianity has been around. And contrary to your assertion about what the Jews used or did not use, it is only in 90 AD that the prevailing (winning not necessarily majority) Jewish scholars suddenly declare a shorter canon opting for the Palestine version of the OT over the longer Greek translation. That decision was at least in some part due to the WIDESPREAD use of the GREEK (and LONGER) OT canon by all the Christians, the Septuigent. The Gospel writers clearly used the Greek Septuagint as reference, and it contained then just as the Catholic Bible does now the deuterocanical books in question. So no matter what else we claim, we know the NT writers used a version of the Jewish OT which included the seven books in question. There is perhaps a case that not all Jews accepted the longer canon of their OT, but clearly some did and the Apostles used it too.As far as being quoted goes, we don’t really want to go there as there are books in the OT in both our Bibles that contain no, ZERO, NT quotes or reference. So that cannot be how the Church or how we should determine what should or should not be in the OT. If it were, then your OT should be shorter than it already is.
 

His By Grace

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For some reason I missed that you had responded to this, Dr. B. Thanks for answering my question so thoroughly. I have noticed in reading through the OT that they refer to other books about the kings, like 2 Chronicles 20:34 mentions the book of Jehu and the book of the kings. Of course, that could mean 1 and 2 Kings, but there are many other books named in with the kings names ; particularly when they died. Even with all of the explanation, I'm not bothered. I still think that we have what we were intended to have for nothing and no one can hold back what the Holy Spirit wills to work in our lives. Who knows, maybe one day Christians will see the need for the 7 books you mentioned. I think what disturbs me the most about the things you post is that you bring your "religious beliefs" into it so much, even though you do have great knowledge of the Bible. You seem to have a need to justify your belief system .I'm not sure why, as most Christians have settled into what they believe based on God's Word, hopefully. And, if not, we need to just stick with that, and be ever so careful not to lead them astray or to our way of thinking rather than the truth. I pray right now that The Spirit of Truth with teach us and lead us into ALL TRUTH. I trust that He will show us the answer to this Biblical debate, so no one will be confused. I would never want to hurt you. I just see that you back up a lot of things based on a certain religious preference. If I'm doing that too, please tell me and forgive me, Lord.
 

DrBubbaLove

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His By Grace,No worries. Like you, I would think that everyone is where they are because they believe the Spirit of Truth has led them there. I think if they did not feel that way, then they would move to another place, just as I did in becoming a Catholic. And I certainly would rather a Christian be as good a right where they are than to ask them to be a bad Catholic.However, I do not think it is true that I am the only one inserting “religious beliefs” here. It may appear to you as so, only because my view is different and also in the minority here. Because of my minority status here there is often little use in my attempting to support our view with scripture. We do not agree on meaning so it is rather pointless and in my experience it will tend to hijack any thread into twisting and fruitless debates on the meaning of verses. BTW, I submit that the meaning of a particular verse accepted by any particular person is predominantly an expression of their “religious belief”, not always but mostly so. Therefore I've found it more fruitful in such forums as this to appeal to reason and the early Christians. Perhaps that is an error, but it has been my experience (and am sure other Catholics) that quoting scripture is a waste of my time in defending my view. Perhaps one result is often the false assumption that we Catholics never use or cannot support our views with scripture. Anyway, enough on that and back to this thread. We all do bring “religious beliefs” here. The prime assumption of this thread is a clearly Protestant “religious belief” that the shorter OT canon is “Biblical” and that the longer one is not. Not everything any of us believe is based on the Bible and this is one of those things. The Bible does not contain a list of inspired books. God did not give us a complete book or a list. The presumption that the Bible each of us has and uses is the one God wanted us to have is for the most part coming from our "religios beliefs". We each put our trust that is so, based on the faith of many that have gone before us.As for the Church's role in all our Canons, the list developed over 3-4 centuries. There were private debates and occasionally councils held where a list of “inspired” books developed and gradually was accepted by the Church. Early on there were some Gnostic Jewish writings a few wanted considered and rejected (from inclusion in the OT- these writings predated Jesus). And many, many more Christian Gnostic, even true Christian and heretical books discussed and rejected as apocrypha. As time passed fewer and fewer believable examples of authentic writings could be submitted for consideration. At some point it would become no longer believable that an authentic writing that could be traced to an Apostle that had not previously been mentioned, referenced by another or previously considered could suddenly appear. So gradually the list of possible canidates for consideration as “inspired” stopped growing and was quite focused. I do not want to paint a picture here of unanimous consent, it was anything but. However the interesting thing is that a fairly consistent and constant canon of OT and NT books remained fixed even if some or many scholars did not hold all OT as equals. Even people with reservations about certain books used them and believed them inspired, just not as inspired as the rest. My patron, St Thomas, was among those that reasoned “degrees” of inspiration. The Didache is an example of a work held inspired and also apocrypha, as in not part of the Canon rather than it being false. The Church for many years left the issue of the canon open. This was at least partially because it was realized they did not have everything that was written in the first century and hoped some writings which they knew once existed (the Q for example) might one day be recovered. It was not until Luther forced the issue that the old debate arose again and the Church officially closed the canon An interesting side note is a reversal in attitude between the East and West from the early days in this process. In the earlier times (say 150-300) the Eastern Church was much more lenient about which books to include and which to exclude. The issue was not so much creating a “Bible” as it was which books could be considered inspired and good therefore to use, read in Church and especially in teaching catechumens. Many books considered apocrypha in the West find favor in the East in addition to the Deuterocanical (7 books in question). When the Latin Vulgate (late 4th early 5th century) is translated loosely based (by Church authority requesting it’s use) on the Septuagint, Saint Jerome apparently had some issues with the deuterocanical books (7 books in question). He writes a preface which basically questions those books. Again it is not clear to me his issue was lack of inspiration as much as not placing them on the same level as the rest of the OT canon. The switch of views occurs with the publication of the Vulgate. The East then adopting the canon of the Vulgate and much more rigid stance (though they would later add two more books to it). The West formerly much less flexible concerning inspired books and now following St Jerome’s lead, scholars there start to question the seven books. Again it often seems to me a matter of degrees of inspiration because many of the people sharing Jerome’s view quote and use the deuterocanical the same way they quote the rest of the OT. Regardless of all this, the same fixed canon remains in use everywhere for the next thousand years or so until called in question by Luther. (Think the East still has two extra books of Maccabees in it and an extra Psalms 151).
 

His By Grace

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Yes, I have really thought about your words. You are absolutely right. Each of us really does bring our own colored view of scripture into our debate. I guess we can't help it. We have had our backgrounds "clouded" in a sense, due to what we have heard all of our lives. That's why I wanted your perspective. I don't just take people at their word, but I am willing to listen. I do search the scripture and ask the Lord to comfort my heart when unsettled about something. He assures me so many times to trust Him with my whole heart. Like the book of James says, "let him ask in faith, with no doubting,for he who doubts (when praying to the Lord) is like a wave of the sea driven and tossed by the wind. Let not that man suppose that he will receive anything from the Lord; he is a double-minded man, unstable in all his ways." (James 1:6-8) Now, I have no doubt that you are a true believer-minority or not. Jesus Himself was a minority. Narrow is the way and few that find it. We all have to search the Bible and ask the Holy Spirit to teach us. I do want to be teachable, not based on being a Southern Baptist. That's just a man-made label. I'm not even concerned about that. I don't agree with all of the doctrine of that religion anyway. I just love the church I attend. It is probably so "out of the box" that we would be kicked out of the convention if truly scrutinized. I am glad you hang in there and show the board that there are wonderful Catholic (oooppps) believers! Oh well, it's a compliment. Maybe that's okay. I'm just saying that we all come from different walks of life, but we can agree that Jesus transcends these. He is so much more and we can all see that. Okay, back to the 7 books; I pray that no one reading this will doubt our Bible and think that the scripture is so tainted that it is too messed up to read and it causes them to denounce the faith. Please know that God is faithful and can use either canon to bring you to Himself. It's all about finding Jesus and Him crucified, buried, resurrected, for your sins and for mine. You must accept that by faith and become a new creature in Christ to have a room built for you in heaven. Otherwise, our works do nothing to save us. We can never be good enough or do enough. That's the basic message of the Bible. That is my main concern. I don't want us to muddy up anything for a non-believer. Blessings to you, Dr. B.