MOTB by itself does not always = LOF ??

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Scott Downey

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This is too funny and sad at the same moment for the very thing you claim of "others" you do yourself!!!
You clearly do not believe 2 Thess 1, or Jesus describing His own returning in Luke 17 as like the time of Noah, cause you religion requires many unbelieving survivors for Christians to rule over for 1000 years. Just those 2 things invalidate your POV
 

ewq1938

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What does that mean? Daniel explains one resurrection of types of people proving there is no 1000 year gap. All I’m asking you to explain is why you think Daniel 12 allows for a 1000 year gap. What part of the text are you seeing that I’m not seeing?


Dan 12 does not state both resurrections happen on the same day. Rev 20 clearly explains that over a thousand years occurs between the two resurrections. Harmonizing the various passages on this topic shows there are two resurrections, the righteous first and the rest/unsaved last and that there's over a thousand years inbetween. It is always a bad idea to focus on one passage and not include the info from other ones on the same exact topic.
 

ewq1938

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1000 yr reign on this old earth after Christ returns with the unbelieving and wicked still alive and kicking, resisting God, goes against what He taught, and also against what the apostles taught.


Amill and Premill both teach a thousand years on this old Earth. Why do you present this as if only Premill teaches it?
 

ewq1938

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Those verses tell us WHEN the resurrection is, not what the resurrection is.

Nothing in there modifies or changes or clarifies the first two verses in the chapter that actually do explain what the resurrection is - one resurrection with two groups being resurrected at the same time.

Let's talk about the group of the saved that resurrect. When specifically does that happen?
 

Davidpt

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Question:

Is Revelation subject to Daniel ch12?
or
Is Daniel ch12 subject to the Gospel, the Apostles writings and finally Revelation?

Maybe some of the following might answer some of that?

Matthew 7:21 Not every one that saith unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father which is in heaven.
22 Many will say to me in that day, Lord, Lord, have we not prophesied in thy name? and in thy name have cast out devils? and in thy name done many wonderful works?


When do you think this day(verse 22) is meaning? For one thing, it is obviously meaning when one enters the kingdom of heaven. We at least know that much.

Matthew 25:34 Then shall the King say unto them on his right hand, Come, ye blessed of my Father, inherit the kingdom prepared for you from the foundation of the world:

If this is not when one bodily enters the kingdom of heaven then what is one entering here?

It seems absurd that Matthew 7:22 is only meaning those in the body of Christ that are still physically alive when He comes. Rather than it means everyone in the body of Christ per the past 2000 years. And if it's the latter, and surely it is, how can everyone in the body of Christ this applies to say these things to the Lord in that day, the fact many of them will have already died before Christ returns, unless they are bodily resurrected, thus the ones everlasting contempt in Daniel 12:2 applies to?