Which Scriptures do you think have corrected me that I have finished no response to? You asked me to be concise, so I gave summary of what I said.
You already know--Ro 2:6-16,26,27, where the Gentile believers, who neither possess nor know the Law, are deemed "doers of the Law" who "will be justified" on the Day of Judgment and repaid eternal life.
In Matthew 4:15-23, Christ began his ministry with the Gospel message to repent for the Kingdom of God is at hand, which was a light to the Gentiles, and the Torah was how his audience knew what sin is (Romans 3:20), so repenting from our disobedience to it is a central part of the Gospel message. Christ also set a sinless example for us to follow of how to walk in obedience to the Torah and we are told to follow his example (1 Peter 2:21-22) and that those who are in Christ are obligated to walk in the same way that he walked (1 John 2:6). Christ also quoted three times from Deuteronomy in order to defeat the temptations of Satan, which included saying that man shall not live by bread alone but by every word that comes from the mouth of God, so Christ spent his ministry teaching teaching his followers to obey the Torah by word and by example and being a Christian is about being a follower of what Christ taught, not about refusing to follow him. The reason why Christ established the New Covenant was not in order to nullify anything that he spent his ministry teaching or so that we could continue to have the same lawlessness that caused the New Covenant to be needed in the first place, but rather the New Covenant involves God putting the Torah in our minds and writing it on our hearts (Jeremiah 31:33).
Someone can't choose to act apart from having knowledge of what they are doing.
I could pick through this, correcting the many errors, but let's cut to the chase : if you insist that Christians must know Torah in order to serve God as Christians, you're going to find a huge issue with Romans 2:6-16. It's a "clue", or a "hint", for your own good, showing you your error, to bring you in to a better, more consistent and coherent understanding of what is being taught.
I did not claim either that Gentiles couldn't be doers of the law justified in the Day of Judgment or that Gentiles don't know the Torah, so that is not according to me.
Maybe English is not your first language, but I never said that you said that Gentiles couldn't be doers of the Law, nor that you said that Gentiles don't know Torah (I understand very well that that is MY position you disagree with). I don't think we should engage in this discussion if you are going to be constantly misunderstanding me--it is difficult enough to navigate the topic with an English-speaker, let alone someone who is unacquainted with both the Scriptures and the English language he's trying to discuss those Scriptures in.
It either neither the case that every Jews knows the law
Again, I never said every Jew knew the Law. Remember that. Stop straw manning my position.
or that no Gentile knows it.
Again, you're arguing against Paul : in the ancient world, in general, one of the distinctions between Jews and Gentiles was that the Jew possessed and knew the Law and the Gentile neither possessed nor knew the Law. This is echoed, again, in his categorization of humans into the two, "those who sinned under Law" and "those who sinned without Law" (Ro 2).
You're trying really hard to argue your case, but you're tripping over all sorts of things in Scripture that you can't see.
Paul addressing his brothers who knew the law, which does not imply that no one else knows it.
When Paul says "
because I speak to those who know the Law", it means, in his mind, he knows that it is his "brothers", fellow recipients of "the oracles of God" (Ro 3), who, unlike those who are not his "brothers" (unlike "Gentiles"), "know the Law".
Why?
The Gentiles don't
have the Law.
How are they "doers of the Law" then?
God writes it on the heart and mind in the New Covenant of Grace.
If someone didn't know the law, then they couldn't be a doer of it.
Oops, God writes the Law on hearts and minds, so they can be doers of it--as evinced in, for instance, Romans 2.
Under the Old Covenant, Pentecost was when the "fiery Law", the Torah, was given (according to tradition); in the New Covenant, however, Pentecost is when the Holy Spirit was given. I don't think this is merely a "coincidence". The Law told people what to do before, but, now, the Spirit tells people what to do--"serve not in oldness of the Letter but in newness of the Spirit".
While I agree that we are not under the law, Paul described the law that we are not under as being a law where sin had dominion over us, which does not describe the Law of God, but rather that is the role of the law of sin.
Nope, God's Law is cast as opposite Sin's Law. Sin is anthropomorphized as a ruler opposite God. God has a Law, and Sin has a Law. The Law we are not under is the Law of Moses, and, and Paul says, the result is that Sin will not master us (make us its slave) BECAUSE we are not under the Law of Moses, BECAUSE sin utilizes the good and holy Law to work sin in us (Ro 7), just as 1 Co 15 says "The strength of sin is the Law".
This is also why Ro 8:3 says "what the Law could not do, in that it was weakened through the flesh" : the Law turns you to your flesh, and, there, you find "nothing good" wherewith you might fulfill the good requirement of the good Law. When you turn to Grace, however, God is perfectly good, and full of goodness, which is why the righteous requirement of the Law is fulfilled in you if you walk in the Spirit / serve in newness of the Spirit of Grace.
In Romans 6:15, being under grace does not mean that we are permitted to sin
When did I ever say you were permitted to "indulge in the flesh" (Col 2:23)?
and in Romans 3:20, it is by the Torah that we have knowledge of what sin is,
Yeah, Paul's point is that it isn't the way to be righteous.
Oops, you're transgressing Romans 6:14 "you are not under Law".
but are not under the law of sin.
We never were "under" the Law of Sin--when Paul says "you are not under Law but under Grace", that corresponds with "serve not in oldness of the letter but in newness of the spirit [of grace]".
I would provide more proofs, but I suspect you, like all other so-called "Torah observant" Christians, are not open to evidence. We'll see, based on your response, if I am right.
Only if you ignore most of what I said.
Sorry, from what I've seen, and as I've proven, you have only scant knowledge of Scripture.