O did he Stan?
Down through the ages this verse has been rigorously debated because Trinitarians & Arians have struggled to correctly interpret the phrase
great God and Savior. But Stan, you have entered the mind of a man now dead for almost 2000 years to inform us here today that "this is what he meant!"
No mention of how he might have written this and in what sense it was given. No honesty on your part to say 1. This could mean both the Father (great God) and to Jesus (Savior). Or that Greek scholars have wrestled over this verse because there is only one article, which precedes both names. They acknowledge the writer could have multiple ideas going on here but no Stan knows Pauls mind!
What we know is there is not a single person in God and Jesus and that they are given distinctly different names, responsibilities and hierarchy.
God manifestation demands a Father making Himself known through a Son.
[SIZE=80%]1:1 [/SIZE]From Paul, a
slave[SIZE=80%]2[/SIZE] of God and
apostle of Jesus Christ, to further the faith
[SIZE=80%]3[/SIZE] of
God’s chosen ones and the knowledge of the truth that is in keeping with godliness, [SIZE=80%]1:2 [/SIZE]in hope of eternal life,
which God, who does not lie, promised before the ages began.
[SIZE=80%]4[/SIZE] [SIZE=80%]1:3 [/SIZE]But now in his own time
[SIZE=80%]5[/SIZE] he has made his message evident through the preaching I was entrusted with according to the command of
God our Savior. [SIZE=80%]1:4 [/SIZE]To Titus, my genuine son in a common faith. Grace and peace from
God the Father and
Christ Jesus our Savior!
When Jesus said He who has seen (character) me has seen the Father we can see how his appearing will be likened to God appearing because the Son always does the will of his Father.
P.
By the way Stan a triad requires 3 not 2 ;)