Rom 1:1 means ???

[dan p]

Hi to all , and many people believe that there is only one Gospel and in Rom 1:1 , we have someone who was separated , unto the Gospel of God .

Paul a slave of Jesus Christ having been called to an apostle ., SEPARATED/APHORIZO unto the Gospel of God .

APHRORIZO can be translated by the following English words .

Boundries
Limited
Separated



This Greek word APHRORIZO , is in the Greek Perfect Tense

The Perfect tense means Past Action , with Continuing Results .

In John 19:30 , Jesus says " it is finished " also in the Perfect Tense

The Perfect tense in John , means that Jesus will never have to be crucified AGAIN on a cross , for His death , He died for sins , PAST , PRESENT and FUTURE .and if He didn't
He would have to die many more times , Heb 9:25 .

The perfect tense , Past Action was Jesus death on the cross

The Continuing Results , are that Jesus KEEPS saving people in the Present , for we are all in present time .

In Rom 1:1 , from what the Perfect tense means , is that Paul can never go back and teach the Law of Mose or ever be a Pharisee again .

That means that Paul was LIMITED to ONLY preach the Gospel of God , and that means that water Baptism , tongues and Prophecies and the childish things will be put away , 1 Cor 13:11 .

This gospel that Paul was to preach was hid in God and Eph 3:1-9 and Acts 20:24 explain what that gospel is along with Rom 16:25-26 , and are command for the Obedience of Faith . dan p

 

[charlesj]

Hi to all , and many people believe that there is only one Gospel and in Rom 1:1 , we have someone who was separated , unto the Gospel of God .

Paul a slave of Jesus Christ having been called to an apostle ., SEPARATED/APHORIZO unto the Gospel of God .

APHRORIZO can be translated by the following English words .

Boundries
Limited
Separated



This Greek word APHRORIZO , is in the Greek Perfect Tense

The Perfect tense means Past Action , with Continuing Results .

In John 19:30 , Jesus says " it is finished " also in the Perfect Tense

The Perfect tense in John , means that Jesus will never have to be crucified AGAIN on a cross , for His death , He died for sins , PAST , PRESENT and FUTURE .and if He didn't
He would have to die many more times , Heb 9:25 .

The perfect tense , Past Action was Jesus death on the cross

The Continuing Results , are that Jesus KEEPS saving people in the Present , for we are all in present time .

In Rom 1:1 , from what the Perfect tense means , is that Paul can never go back and teach the Law of Mose or ever be a Pharisee again .

That means that Paul was LIMITED to ONLY preach the Gospel of God , and that means that water Baptism , tongues and Prophecies and the childish things will be put away , 1 Cor 13:11 .

This gospel that Paul was to preach was hid in God and Eph 3:1-9 and Acts 20:24 explain what that gospel is along with Rom 16:25-26 , and are command for the Obedience of Faith . dan p

Hi dan:



I think we agree on the prefect tense. The force of the perfect tense is simply that it describes an event that, completed in the past (I’m speaking of the perfect indicative here), has results existing in the present time (i.e., in relation to the time of the speaker, in this case, the apostle Paul.)



I really like the fact that our Lord KEEPS on saving (everyone that obeys the faith in each generation). PRAISE HIS NAME!!



Remember, Paul was “aphrorizo” from his mother’s womb. I’m not saying or implying that Paul is referring to God’s purpose as being present already when Paul was born.



[sup]“[/sup]But when it was the good pleasure of God, whose separated (ἀφορίζω) me, even from my mother’swomb, and called me through his grace.” -Gal 1:15





The church in Antioch had prophets and teachers, the Holy Spirit told them:

[sup] [/sup]

[sup]“[/sup]And as they ministered to the Lord, and fasted, the Holy Spirit said, Separate (ἀφορίζω) me Barnabas and Saul for the work whereuntoI have called them.” –Acts 13:2



Paul’s mission:

“But arise, and stand uponthy feet: for to this end have I appeared unto thee, to appoint thee a ministerand a witness both of the things wherein thou hast seen me, and of the thingswherein I will appear unto thee; [sup]17[/sup]delivering thee from the people,and from the Gentiles, unto whom I send thee, [sup]18[/sup]to open their eyes,that they may turn from darkness to light and from the power of Satan unto God,that they may receive remission of sins and an inheritance among them that aresanctified by faith in me.” – Acts 26:16-18



Acts 26:18 mentions “remission of sins,” that is “pardon of sins.” Peter, in this same book of Acts, Acts 2:38 tells you “how” your sins are pardoned. We all know that itis the “Blood of Christ” that pardons sins, but Peter tells you how you reach that Blood.

Paul tells us that you “…put on Christ” at baptism (Gal 3:27)



Also, take a look at the Greek word used in 1 Peter 3:21. Verse 20 speaks of the flood wherein eight souls were saved “by water.” Then thenext verse uses a Greek word “antitupon or antitupos.” Guess where we get our English word“antitype” from? You guessed it,antitupos. Well 1 Peter 3:20 tells you about the “flood” which is a “type.” The“antitype” to the flood is baptism according to the Holy Spirit. The Holy Spirit says, “the ‘like figure’(antitupos) is baptism…” The NAS says,“…baptism now saves you-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience--through the resurrection of Jesus Christ,…”

The KJV puts it this way: “The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh,but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of JesusChrist:…”

(Look up the Greek word for“figure” in 1Pet 3:21. It’s the Greek “antitupon.”)

Back to Romans…

When we look at this text(Rom 1:1) we must regard the perfect participle as another apposition to“Paul”” “one having separated (or set apart) God’s gospel,” The phrase meaning, “for the work of preaching the gospelof salvation in the world.” Also, NOTEthe ABSENCE of the article. Paul IS NOT“the one thus separated.” The Lord set apart TWELVE others in the same immediate way and for the same task. The particle DOES NOT modify “apostle,” nor does it modify the verbal, “called by having separated…” One should not emphasize the particle, for the advance in thought lies in the added phrase which is, therefore, also expanded in the following modifiers. The fact that Paul, one of the Lord’s slaves,one of his called apostles, was also one set apart goes without saying. The fact that he was to be used by the Lordfor preaching the gospel in an office that had been especially designed by the Lord is the real point of this final apposition. “Jesus Christ” is evidently INTEDNDED as the agentof the PASSIVE “having separated,” and the perfect tense with its present connotation refers, not to the special act by which Jesus set Paul apart, but makes plain what Paul now is: one separated, one separated from the many other slaves of the Lord, from all other relations and activities for this gospel work that had been arranged by Jesus.



“Having been separated” does not differentiate Paul from the other apostles, but puts him in the same class with them. Matthew 10 shows how the Twelvewere separated; Acts 1:8, how they were sent intoall the world (also see Matt 28:19), and Paul was to be the Lord’s witness in the same way, Acts 22:15; 23:11; 26:22.



I like what Daniel Wallace says, “The average student learning NT Greek typically knows Greek grammar better than English grammar after a couple of years of study. Consequently, the aspect of the Greek perfectis sometimes imported into the English perfect. That is, there is a tendency to see the English perfect as placing an emphasis on existing results – a notion foreign to English grammar. As Moule notes, ‘the Greek tense is concerned with result, while the English tense is concerned solely wit the absence…of an interval.’ One ought to be careful when translating the perfect into English to resist the temptation to translate it as an English perfect at all times. When so translated, the Greek perfect should be extensive, not intensive.

Along these lines, it shouldbe noted that as many faults as the KJV has, it frequently has a superior rendering of the Greek perfect over many modern translations. (Recall that the KJV was produced during the golden age of English, during Shakespeare’s era.) For example, in Eph 2:8 the KJV reads “for by grace are ye saved,” while many modern translations (e.g., RSV, NASB) have “for by grace you have been saved.’ The perfect periphrastic construction is most likely intensive, however. The KJV translators, though not having nearly as good a grasp on Greek as modern translations, seem to have had a better grasp on English. They apparently recognized that to translate Eph 2:8 with an English perfect would say nothing about the state resulting from the act of being saved.” GREEK GRAMMAR BEYOND THE BASICS, by Daniel B. Wallace, page 575.



“The perfect is used lessfrequently than the present, aorist, future, or imperfect, when used, there isusually a deliberate choice on the part of the writer.

Perfect occurs 1571 times:835 indicatives, 673 participles, 49 infinitives, 10 subjunctives and 4imperatives (the perfect optative does not occur in the NT) “ Wallace, page 573.



You said, “That means that Paul was LIMITED to ONLY preach the Gospel of God , and that means that water Baptism , tongues and Prophecies and the childish things will be put away , 1 Cor 13:11”



Dan, Paul penned Romans around A.D. 58, at the end of his third missionary journey. His three month stay in Corinth wasabout to end (Acts 20:1-6). Paul had preached a lot on baptism BEFORETHIS PERIOD OF TIME AND AFTER THIS TIME ON “water baptism.” In Romans 6 the whole chapter deals closely with baptism. Paul tells us that baptism is a burial into His death and you are ‘buried WITH HIM” (in water) and raised to walk innewness of life. (6:4) and when we are baptized (after believing, repenting& confession) we are UNITED WITH HIM IN likeness of His DEATH AND we also in likeness of His RESURRECTION. Verses17, 18 of this SAME chapter is still, in context, dealing with baptism and obeying the gospel. Take a look at the word “form of teaching” (KJV says “form of doctrine”) in Rom 6:17. The Greek word here for “form” is the Greek“TUPOS.” Tupos means “mold, pattern,mark (like a stamp mark)” When one “obeys” “that form of teaching” verse 18tells us they are “freed from sin and you become servants of righteousness.”

(To see this Greek word "tupos" used again, take a look at Hebrews 8:5 and the word "pattern.")



If you want a discussion on Baptism then let’s start another thread. I have Much MORE to say on this subject.



I would like to thank you for bringing up the “perfect tense” and it’s use.



May the Lord be with us as we study His Word,

Your servant in Messiah,

charlesj





"THE SUM OF THY WORD IS TRUTH" Psalms 119:160

 

[dan p]

Hi dan:



I think we agree on the prefect tense. The force of the perfect tense is simply that it describes an event that, completed in the past (I’m speaking of the perfect indicative here), has results existing in the present time (i.e., in relation to the time of the speaker, in this case, the apostle Paul.)

Hi charles , and thank you , and I did not bring up that it is in the passive voice , Indicative mood or that it is a Participle and should have been translated , " having been Limited ".

I just know some Greek and am studying it .

The perfect tense here shows that Paul could NEVER go back to be a Pharisee or be a Law keeper as Acts 21:21 , proves to all , and show that the message changed from Law to Grace Acts 20:24 , to testify od the Grace of God , and Paul was the ONLY apostle to preach these message , dan p

 

[charlesj]

Hi charles , and thank you , and I did not bring up that it is in the passive voice , Indicative mood or that it is a Participle and should have been translated , " having been Limited ".

I just know some Greek and am studying it .

The perfect tense here shows that Paul could NEVER go back to be a Pharisee or be a Law keeper as Acts 21:21 , proves to all , and show that the message changed from Law to Grace Acts 20:24 , to testify od the Grace of God , and Paul was the ONLY apostle to preach these message , dan p

Hello Dan:

I’m glad you are a student of the Greek. I don’t want you to get the idea that I am fluent in Greek or that I even consider myself real good in it. I don’t. I just get around in it and have for years.



I was talking to a friend of mine while in a bible college during a break back in the early 1970's. We were discussing Greek. I was dabbling in it at that time and wanted to tell him something about it. I expressed my opinion and I will always remember what he told me.
Hey Charles, "you said this meant "xxxxxxxxx" in Greek (I can't remember the word I was telling him about), but I want to tell you this, The Baptist tell me their Greek, Lutherans their's and the Pentecostals tell me their Greek and ALL I GET IS GREASY GREEK!" LOL

You have to be careful of the scripture you are using in Acts 21:21 for a proof text against Paul being a “law keeper.” If you actually read the verse, in context, it is saying that “they are saying that you are speaking against Moses…” etc. It may or not have been what he was teaching.

I am going to quote the context from the NLT

“18 The next day Paul went with us to meet with James, and all the elders of the Jerusalem church were present. 19 After greeting them, Paul gave a detailed account of the things God had accomplished among the Gentiles through his ministry.

20 After hearing this, they praised God. And then they said, “You know, dear brother, how many thousands of Jews have also believed, and they all follow the law of Moses very seriously. 21 But the Jewish believers here in Jerusalem have been told that you are teaching all the Jews who live among the Gentiles to turn their backs on the laws of Moses. They’ve heard that you teach them not to circumcise their children or follow other Jewish customs. 22 What should we do? They will certainly hear that you have come.” Acts 21:18-22 Tyndale House Publishers. (2004). Holy Bible : New Living Translation. (2nd ed.) (Ac 21:18–22). Wheaton, Ill.: Tyndale House Publishers.



Like I said, this is not a strong verse or proof text in behalf of what Paul was teaching. I think there are plenty of other verses that deal with the Mosaic Law.

Dan, that’s my three cents.



May the Lord bless you and me as we study His Word,

charlesj

 

[dan p]

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Hi charles , do not worry , for I have more than one verse that shows that Paul will never be a Law keeper ever again .

Tomorrow I will have and OP on Acts 2:38 , on Baptism and I wnat your input as I do not have time now , dan p