I see you ran away from the text he quoted so here it is with exegesis not eisegesis like you practice with nothing bot personal opinions.
Here lets begin with the syllogisms from the text in
Philippians 2.
Just as the term “form of God” in verse six does not mean “less than God” because of the phrase “equality with God" in the prior passage.
It goes to reason in the same way with the 2 phrases in the “form of a servant” and in the “likeness of man” in verse seven do not mean that Jesus was any “less than human,” but instead means He was the same or “equal with all humans.”
That is how the passage reads and how it is to be understood in its " CONTEXT ".
He self-limited His divine prerogatives via the Incarnation as per Phil 2. In other words did not use them to His advantage but was in submission to the Father for 33 years to accomplish our salvation. All the FULLNESS of DEITY dwells in bodily form. Col 2:9. Jesus was and is fully God lacking nothing in His Deity. Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, 6
who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, 7 but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant,
and being made in the likeness of men.
Even through Christ existed in the form of God He did not regard equality with God something that He needed to reach for or grasp. Why because it was already His and never gave that up for a millisecond.
Colossians 1:19-20
For God was pleased to have
all his fullness dwell in him, 20 and through him to reconcile to himself all things, whether things on earth or things in heaven,
by making peace through his blood, shed on the cross.
In
Colossians 2:9 the Apostle Paul said, For in HIM (CHRIST) ALL of the “ fullness of deity dwells bodily.” Did Paul use the word
fullness there to mean partially? NO as Jesus did not empty Himself of His Deity. Jesus Divinity is FULL, complete lacking in nothing. The ENTIRE Fullness of Deity dwells(is present) bodily in Jesus.
ALL THE FULNESS OF DEITY= nothing absent, missing its the same FULNESS of the FATHER and HOLY SPIRIT- The Godhead.
Try to engage the text and exegete the passage rather than use eisegesis- reading your own thoughts and ideas into the text.
He shed His blood on the cross when
all the Fulness of Deity was in Him bodily as the passage plainly SAYS in
Colossians 1:19-20.
What Paul makes very clear in this passage is that in addition to being God, He became man. The Incarnation was not a subtraction of His deity but an addition of humanity to His nature. This passage does not say Jesus gave up His deity but that He laid aside His rights as Deity, assuming the form of a servant in verse 7. The text says He was in the form of God or being in the very nature of God in 2:6. Just as He took upon Himself the "form of a servant" which is a servant by nature, so the "form of God" is God by nature. The word "being" from the phrase: being in the very form of God is a present active participle. This means "continued existence" as God. What Paul is actually saying here is Jesus has always been and still is in the "form of God". If you continue reading the passage Paul really drives this point home so that his readers have no doubt what he is trying to get across to the Philippians. Paul says that every knee will bow and will one day Confess Jesus is LORD. Paul takes the passage in
Isaiah 45:23 which clearly refers to Yahweh a name used for God alone and says this of Jesus. The fulfillment of YHWH in
Isaiah 45 is none other than Jesus who is God(Yahweh) in the flesh.
hope this helps !!!
