OzSpen
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- Mar 30, 2015
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Butch,Butch5 said:Since we're talking about context let's note that the "we" is Paul and the Corinthians, not you and I. His statement about seeing face to face says nothing about seeing Jesus. He contrasts two things, the present where he sees things through a class darkly (In other words things aren't clear) with seeing someone face to face. When you see someone face to face it is clear. Then he says now I know in part but then (when the maturity comes) I will have full knowledge. In both of these he speaks of a now and then. In the first example he spoke of being a child and growing to maturity.
11 When I was a child, I spake as a child, I understood as a child, I thought as a child: but when I became a man, I put away childish things. (1 Cor. 13:11 KJV)
I submit that the next two sentences which speak of a now and then are tied to this statement of being a child and maturing to man. The now is as a child and the then is as a man. Now as a child we see through a glass darkly and now as child I know. But then, as a man I will see face to face. But then, I will have full knowledge. The whole section is speaking of a process of mating
That right there tells us that he isn't referring to the coming of Christ. Jesus said He would come as thief in the night. That's a quick event not a process of growing from a child to a man. Additionally, he said that after, prophecy, tongues, and knowledge, ceased, Faith, hope, and love would remain. Paul said that faith is,
Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen. (Heb. 11:1 KJV)
When Jesus returns He will be seen so faith won't be needed. likewise he said that hope that is seen isn't hope.
24 For we are saved by hope: but hope that is seen is not hope: for what a man seeth, why doth he yet hope for?
25 But if we hope for that we see not, then do we with patience wait for it. (Rom. 8:24-25 KJV)
So, when Jesus returns we won't need faith and hope, yet Paul said that after prophecy, tongues, and knowledge, ceased, faith, and hope would continue. This would put the coming of the perfect, the maturity, before the return of Christ.
He says that prophecy and knowledge will cease when the perfect (maturity) comes and the word cease is in the passive voice. That means something will cause them to cease. That obviously would be the coming of the maturity. However, when he says that tongues will cease he uses a middle voice verb for cease. This means that there isn't something that will make tongues cease but rather tongues will cease of its own accord. Since Isaiah tells us that tongues was a sign to unbelieving Israel of the judgment that was coming. Once that judgment came the purpose of tongues would have fulfilled and thus not be necessary any longer.
The context is for tongues ceasing, based on I Cor 13:12 (ESV), 'For now we see in a mirror dimly, but then face to face. Now I know in part; then I shall know fully, even as I have been fully known' (emphasis added).
The 'now' addresses the Corinthian's contemporary existence and the contrast is with 'then'. The 'now' involves only knowing partially, but the 'then' is when I (and you) and the Corinthians 'shall know fully' just as 'I have been fully known'.
When will the Corinthians and I know fully just as we are fully known? That will be in the Eschaton - at the second coming of Jesus.
I am not convinced the whole process is talking of maturing, but that, based on v 11, Paul is not talking about childishness and then growing up by maturing. He is allowing v. 12 to interpret the meaning of v. 11. But v. 12 confirms what v. 11 is all about. He's telling us that there will come a time when the gifts will pass away and that is when the other comes. When the Corinthians and all believers will know fully in the Eschaton.
You want the 'we' to refer to Paul and the Corinthians only. Not so. Are you wanting to tell me that the other sections of 1 Cor apply only to Paul and the Corinthians? Is the 'love' of 1 Cor 13 only to apply to Paul and the Corinthians and nobody else? If 'love never ends' (1 Cor 13:8), it is a travesty of exegesis to make that apply only to Paul and the Corinthians. What's the point of having 1 Cor 13 in the Bible if it is to apply only to Paul and the Corinthians and not to apply to all Christians?
Oz