Then the reverse is true. You have in no way shape, or form, proven that there is any instruction to pray to Jesus in the Bible.Of course Jesus isn’t the Father. My original point was that your claim, “John 16:23,24 supersedes John 14:13,14 in the biblical timeline,” in no way whatsoever “proves that there are no instructions to pray to Jesus in the Bible.”
John 16:23 comes later in the Biblical timeline. So why did Jesus state to not ask him for anything?If “me” is in the text, Jesus is simply saying that we can ask things of both him and the Father.
You're reading too far into the text. If you are attempting to extend the titles "Son of God" and "Son of Man" to refer to deity, then you run into a consistency issue in which the others who are referred to as son of God or son of man in the Bible must also be God.Perhaps some similar things, but Jesus said some vastly different things. Jesus claimed to be the Christ, the Son of God, and the Son of Man. He claimed to have come from heaven (John 3:13; 6:33-33, 38, 51; 8:23; 16:28), to have timeless existence (John 8:58;17:5, 24), and to be omnipresent (Matt. 18:20).
All these things, and more, point to Jesus being truly God just as he is truly man. So, as God he is worthy of our worship, as we see a few times in NT, and we can pray to him.
Additionally, you're adding some concepts to the Bible that are not stated.
Let me ask it like this: is this the same person who uttered the phrase “before Abraham was born, I am,” who said that he is a man (John 8:40), who called the Father the “only true God” (John 17:3), who called the Father greater than himself (John 14:28), who said he could do nothing from himself (John 5:19, 30), who said that he does not seek his own will but the will of the Father (John 5:30; 6:38), who called the Father his authority (John 5:26-27; Matthew 28:18), who called the Father the one who gave him his words (John 12:49-50; 14:10), who said that the Father had taught him (John 8:28), who said that he had been sent by God (John 8:42), who spoke of his own God (John 20:17; Revelation 3:12), who acknowledged that only the Father had access to some knowledge that he did not (Mark 13:32), and who ultimately would give the Kingdom back to God that he might be “all in all” (1 Corinthians 15:24-28)? If so, what is your take on all those passages vis a vis Jesus being God? If they are the same speaker, then you have an issue justifying praying to Jesus.
Jesus saying to not ask him for anything is in line with his only teaching on prayer, which he specifically instructed is for the Father (Matthew 6:6,9)What Jesus didn’t say was, “Don’t ask me for anything.”
Jhn 16:23 In that day you will ask nothing of me. Truly, truly, I say to you, whatever you ask of the Father in my name, he will give it to you.
First, Jesus is speaking of a specific time—“In that day.” It certainly refers to after his resurrection but also likely to after his ascension (16:16-22). Second, in that day, they “will ask nothing.” That is very different from telling them to not ask him for anything. He is essentially saying that they will not need to ask him.
Also, if it is true that Jesus had said to ask him and now says to ask the Father, there is no problem. It would simply mean we can ask both of them for things.
