The Holy Spirit

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setfree

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So when Peter was speaking Spanish, Peter himself could not understand what he was saying.
 

dgc

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I heard that the people were hearing Peter in their own language hebrew in hebrew, greek in greek, asian in asian, and Peter was addressing the multitude in his native language but each were hearing in there own Acts 2:4-6
 

Christina

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The proof it was from God was all understood do you not see that this was the same thing he did at the tower of Bable in reverse in a limited form he allowed each to understand another peoples language There is nothing new under the sun what happened before will happen again Just as all used to speak one language and all understood God language is understood by all human ears there is no language from God that anyone can not understand its why no matter who the angels were talking to they were understood by the hearer
 

setfree

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dgc, I used Peter because Kriss used him as an example. It does not mention what Tongue Peter spoke in.
 

Christina

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So when Peter was speaking Spanish, Peter himself could not understand what he was saying.
I never said that I said they were granted the ability to speak and understand what ever language God bestowed on them I dont know Peter spoke spanish that was an example can you not understand what Acts says?
 

setfree

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(kriss;41693)
The proof it was from God was all understood do you not see that this was the same thing he did at the tower of Bable in reverse in a limited form he allowed each to understand another peoples language There is nothing new under the sun what happened before will happen again Just as all used to speak one language and all understood God language is understood by all human ears there is no language from God that anyone can not understand its why no matter who the angels were talking to they were understood by the hearer
This did not answer my question. In verse 4 it says that they all SPOKE in other languages. As they were speaking, could they understand themselves?
 

Christina

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Act 2:3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. So what do we see a cloven tounge what does that mean CLOVEN:to be divided into opposing parts, to be at variance, in dissension3) to distributeSo what we have here is a language that by the fire of God (god is a consuming fire)was split up and a language given to each to speak in a language each was given a language seperaterated from Gods languageeach given a part a Language ,a language of who one of the ones in Acts 2:5Act 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. They were filled with the holy spirit of God the same spirit they were baptised withand they began to talk each with the seperate language they were given to speakand the spirit of told them whay to say Act 2:5 ¶ And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. Men of every nation on earth and speaking every language on earth were there Act 2:6 Now when this was noised abroad, the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language.And they were confused because suddenly every man was hearing heard them in their own Language each aspostel/disciple was speaking in a different language so that all their could hear and understand What part of this dont you get
 

setfree

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I never said that I said they were granted the ability to speak and understand what ever language God bestowed on them I dont know Peter spoke spanish that was an example can you not understand what Acts says?
I am trying to understand it. Where does it say that they themselves understood? I know that the multitude understood in their own language. But did the disciples?
 

Christina

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They ALL UNDERSTOOD not only in their own language but even dilect another words today if you were from the south you would have even heard it in a southren draw
 

dgc

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You are correct but what it does say is "How is it that we hear them each in our own native language?" this is all at once Like Kriss said "all understood God language is understood by all human ears there is no language from God that anyone can not understand its why no matter who the angels were talking to they were understood by the hearer. A hevanly intervention.
 

dgc

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As every indivdual understood what peter was saying it is safe to belive that all the deciples including Peter also under stood.
 

Christina

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Im going to bed you guys have given me a headache:) post your questions if you like ill answer tomarrow night and May God grant you all wisdom to seepleasent dreams
 

setfree

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When verse 6 mentions that every man heard them speak in his own language. The mulitude was hearing in there own language. Verse 4 only says that the disciples spoke in other(not learned) languages.
 

setfree

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If, as Kriss said(in post 67), that the cloven tongues were different languages. Each disciple spoke a different language(not know by the disciple). The multitude heard in there language what the disciples were speaking.Example:John spoke Medes-the medes understood.James spoke Cretes-the cretes understood in there own language.
 

Thunder1

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No if you have read this thread from the begining you would know that this is not my word or any misunderstanding by me Gods word only says one thing and it never speaks of what you say if its not there I can not teach it if it were there I would be shouting from the roof tops my desire has never been to have you hear me but always to have you hear God I am nothing I am not right God is rightI luv you too or I would keep repeating myself its for you not against you
I've read so many posts on this subject not just now but previously,there were other people discussing about it too, and you just argued. God is in control.
 

Christina

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If, as Kriss said(in post 67), that the cloven tongues were different languages. Each disciple spoke a different language(not know by the disciple). The multitude heard in there language what the disciples were speaking.Example:John spoke Medes-the medes understood.James spoke Cretes-the cretes understood in there own language.
True but the evidence of the Holy spirit was that it was understood.Now you are getting to where it changes to 1 Cor. In acts God is teaching/speaking directly to the disciples when you get to 1 Cor. It is the same type gift but it is about men teaching men God gives the gift of speaking and understanding these natural human languages but it is the Words of men teaching men God is no longer speaking through them this is the difference in the miracle of Penetcost day and 1 Cor.What were the disciples teaching other men? what God had told them this is why they need the gift of the languages of other nation to be able to teach an unknown lanuage serves no purpose it teaches nothing. Paul was warning them if you are in a land and have not been given the gift of speaking their language get an interpter as unknown Words do not build the church and that was the goal to build the church not the indivual Paul is saying telling them what God taught us in a language they do not understand may build your ego (edify) and make you feel good but it does nothing to build the church so get an interpter or keep quite.
 

Alanforchrist

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You are wrong there is one baptiim Eph 4 Christ had not yet died in John 20On penecost day was the first time Batisim in the spirit Jesus Christ was available it replaced the earlier Water baptisim giving us Now ONE baptisim ther is now only ONE plural is used here because the baptism does more than one thing it allows the the spirit of Christ in indwell in the believer and inturn allows the believer to become a member of the body of Christ these are not dual baptisms but serves a duel purpose.
[1] John 20: was not the baptism in the Holy Ghost, He did not come to the day of pentecost, John 20, was the first baptim [Into the body of Christ] 1 Corinthians 12:13.The "One baptism" in Ephesians 4:5. is the baptism into the body of Christ.If you think there is only one baptism, what do you think Hebrews 6: 2. Means. Also, what do you mean about the Holy Spirit replacing water baptism.Where do you get your idear's from. The Bible clearly mentions three baptisms.
 

Jackie D

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How is it in Cor. 14:14 that it says that my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful? IT PLAINLY SAYS THAT YOU ARE PRAYING IN THE SPIRIT-A LANGUAGE THAT YOU DO NOT UNDERSTAND.
I could be wrong but when I consider this I remember what Jesus said to the disciples the night of His arrest when He went to pray in the garden...your spirit is willing but your flesh is weak. At this point in time I do not believe that we even know the language of our spirits. And it is Spirit to spirit that we truly have communication of depth such as the interceding prayer of the Holy Spirit. We may never hear with our physical ears the communication between our spirit and the Spirit of God but there is a language unique of all language that could be spoken, if what I have gathered is correct. Again, this is just something that I have pondered and that makes more sense to me than expecting that the only way I am capable of praying in the spirit to the Spirit is if I am given a gift of "tongues"....after all God speaks all languages...
 

Alanforchrist

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I have never put my own thought I heve expouned on what is written to explain but it was never my thought.I have shown you exactly what Gods word says if you can see it I not the one with blinders on No apsotel nor Christ himself nor phophet of God nor Word of God ever taught any unknow tongue it was not until 1800 this false doctrine ever was heardand those that started it tried to confess they were wrong and repented for ever doing it but other evil men latched onto it and the movement went on it never was from God.I read many early church documents and writting this was never even conceived of much less a doctrine of Men of GodYou do not have a single scripture to prove this without misunderstanding what is said So I take it your choice is your belief of men over God thats fine by me I only attempt to show Gods truth it doesnt say two things it only says one and that one is easy to see when you dont have false doctrine over your eyes. I not only dont speak this evil talk I thank God every day he protected me from falling into this blindness for I can see clearly. If I ever started speaking mutterings I would ask God to order the evil spirit away from me in the name of my savior Jesus ChristIsa 8:19 And when they shall say unto you, Seek unto them that have familiar spirits, and unto wizards that peep, and that mutter: should not a people seek unto their God? for the living to the dead?
[1] Tongues does mean language,"A HEAVENLY LANGUAGE".[2] You are putting you own views again.[2] It is obvious that you have never been baptised in the Holy Ghost.Jesus said, "The believer shall speak with new tongues". I suposse you think He got it wrong as well.
 

Jackie D

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Alanforchrist wrote:
[2] It is obvious that you have never been baptised in the Holy Ghost.Jesus said, "The believer shall speak with new tongues". I suposse you think He got it wrong as well.
Do you know Alan that speaking this way, is telling another they do not have the Spirit of God with them...like those who spoke and said that Jesus cast out demons by Beelzebub? How dare you tell anyone they have not been baptised by the Holy Ghost because they don't speak with a tongue that sounds like a foreign language. And how dare you judge another persons spirit and soul by telling them they are without the very thing that makes them whole in Christ! That is false doctrine, it is false teaching, it is heresy and it is blasphemy!! May the Lord forgive for what you have said...
 
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