Actually in the Greek lexicons which is trinity translating-In the 2nd line at John 1:1 the Greek word for God capitol G ends in a v. In the last line at John 1:1 the Greek word for god ends in a g--the Word( Logos) word ends in a g. The only other occurrence in the NT where that occurs is 2 Cor 4:4--Satans word ends in g=god--the True Gods word ends in v. = God- Making a god at John 1:1 100% correct.
In 1822 a Greek scholar( Abner Kneeland) compared Greek to English in his NT translation to prove to the world a god was correct. 19 other translations had a god, 3 had was divine, 1 had was godlike--All rejected by trinity religions because that single fact exposes them as false religion, misleading all into not entering Gods kingdom. Best to check facts before speaking on those matters.
What you say here is based on an ignorance of Greek grammar!
John wrote "θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος" by design, because he could not have written "ὁ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος".
Those who render this Greek as "and the Word was a god", do so because of their theology on the Person of Jesus Christ, and has nothing to do with the actual Greek construction of this clause, within its context.
In the previous clause, John writes, “καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν”, which literally in English is, "and the Word was in the presence of God [the Father]", where the use of the Greek preposition, "πρὸς", shows that a personal distinction is meant. "The Word", is not the same Person as God the Father (τὸν θεόν). Now, had John written in the last clause in verse 1, "ὁ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος", the use of the Greek article, "ὁ", with "θεὸς", would have made "ὁ θεὸς", IDENTICAL with the Person, "ὁ λόγος", because the article with both nouns in this construction, would have made them interchangeable, thereby destroying what John had just written, “καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν”. Not only so, but, by writing "ὁ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος", John would be saying that Jesus Christ, and He ALONE, is GOD, which would exclude the Father, Who is clearly "τὸν θεόν”, in this verse.
The subject in John 1:1, indeed, in the entire passage of verses 1 to 18, is "ὁ λόγος", THE WORD, Who is the Lord Jesus Christ, and not some unknown impersonal figure as some wrongly claim, which is destroyed by the very passage that shows "ὁ λόγος", to be PERSONAL, as He is is fellowship with the Father, and together with the Father, created the entire universe (verse 3), which is the force of the Greek preposition, "δι'", in verse 3, "all things were created WITH Him", and not simply BY, or THROUGH, because the Father also is The Creator, which is clear from passages like Hebrews 2:10, etc.
John, by writing "θεὸς", without the Greek article in the last clause in verse 1, does so, to show the IDENTITY of "ὁ λόγος" (the Word), as "θεὸς", is the PREDICATE of this sentence., that He is also GOD, as the Father, with Who He is with (πρὸς), Two Distinct Persons, Who are equally called GOD.
In John 8:54, Jesus Christ is speaking with the Jews, "ο πατηρ μου ο δοξαζων με ον υμεις λεγετε οτι θεος υμων εστιν", literally, "My Father Who glorifies Me, whom you say is your God". Notice in this construction, that the Greek noun "θεος", does not have the Greek article, "ὁ", but "ο πατηρ" (the Father), does. "ο πατηρ", here, like "ὁ λόγος", in 1:1, has the article, because the Father is the SUBJECT of what Jesus is saying here. "θεος", here, like in 1:1, does not take the article, because it is used as the PREDICATE of the sentence of 8:54. Jesus most certainly does not mean, that the Father is "a god", or "divine", but GOD. Grammatically, Jesus is clear as to the IDENTITY of the Father.
For those, like James Moffatt, and Edgar Goodspeed, who in their English translations, read "and the Logos was divine"; "and the Word was divine"; they are both very much wrong, as their translations would require John to have used, "θειός
"! Like the reading, "a god", "divine" is used for theological purposes, and not because of what the actual Greek says!
