Let me try to give an example in the gospels Joseph knew not Mary until after the birth of Jesus. What do you think that meant that he knew not Mary did he not know who she was what do you think the word to know has a different meaning
Why are you using
Matt. 1:25 to make an argument about
foreknowledge and/or
omniscience??
This is
apples and oranges.
HOWEVER - if you are trying to show that
Joseph and Mary engaged in sexual intercourse based on this verse - then you
aren't familiar with
Biblical language as it pertains to the use of the word
"until" (heos).
The
Greek word used in this verse is
not the usual term for
"knowlegege (oida) but is actually a Jewish idiom for
sexual intercourse (ghin-oce'-ko).
HOWEVER - if you are trying to make an argument that
Joseph and Mary engaged in sexual intercourse based on
this verse - you apparently
aren't familiar with other areas in Scripture where
"until" (heos) is used. Allow me to
explain . . .
Did Mary have
other children after Jesus? The Bible
doesn't support this idea.
Let’s see what the Scriptures say about the use of the word,
“until”:
2 Samuel 6:23 tells us:
Therefore Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death.
Are we to assume that
Michal had children
after she died
?
Let’s also examine
Acts 2:34-35 (also see Psalm 110:1, Matt 22:44): For David did not go up into heaven, but he himself said: 'The Lord said to my Lord, "Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies your footstool."'
Are we to surmise that
Jesus will
cease to sit at the right hand of the Father
after his enemies are made his footstool?
Deut. 34:6 states
explicitly that
Moses was buried by God in the
Valley of Moab - and nobody knows and no one knows his burial place until this day.
Does this mean that
Moses' body was discovered
after this verse was written?
The problem here is that
anti-Catholics attempt to apply
21st century English to
Hebrew and
Greek from a culture thousands of years ago.
