The myth of grace-only & easy-believism shattered forever

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BreadOfLife

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Can't find that in scriptures. If you did, please kindly quote the scriptures. Thanks.

Tong
R0022
Then I suggest you open your Bible . . .

John 3:16
“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.

Romans 5:15
But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many.

Romans 6:23
For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.

Romans 8:32

He who did not spare His own Son, but delivered Him over for us all, how will He not also with Him freely give us all things?

2 Corinthians 9:15
Thanks be to God for His indescribable gift!

Ephesians 2:8
For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;

A gift is given freely.
It can be accepted or rejected . . .
 

BreadOfLife

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Well, if you insist. And if that's what you understand of my question, so be it then.

My question:

Before all creation, can you tell us what to you is God's foreknowledge? What future does God knows ~ Is it of things He planned to do or is it of random things He didn't know will happen if not for His foreknowledge?

As every careful reader would see, my question is whether what you say God sees and knows in the future, perhaps such as Lucifer rebelling against Him and Eve's sinning and so of Adam's sinning, are things contained in His plan or are of random things He did not know will happen if not for His power of foreknowing.

Before all creation, whatever future you are talking about that God sees ahead and knows, could only be that which God has determined to do (plan) and allowed to come to pass (accomplish according to His plan). So, having said that, God's foreknowledge could only be anything but what He determined to do (plan) and that which will come to pass according to His plan. There is nothing that happens that God does not know and does not allow to happen. There simply is no random event for God. God's foreknowledge is not of things that happens in random but of things which God has determined to do (plan) and allowed to come to pass (accomplish according to His plan). This is critical in that, an erroneous take with regards the foreknowledge of God leads to erroneous doctrines.

Tong
R0020
This is absolute Calvinist nonsense.

The idea of Double Predestination is an abominable, anti-Biblical human invention. As I stated earlier - NOWHERE do the Scriptures indicate that God is a monster who sends people kicking and screaming into Hell against their will - nor does He drag anybody into Heaven kicking and screaming against their will.

He is not some sort of Cosmic Rapist who has to "force" His love one some while tossing the rest into Hell at His pleasure. He has endowed upon us a FREE WILL that allows US to make the choice to follow Him or to reject Him.
That is the epitome of love.

The monster YOU describe was invented by John Calvin in the 16th century -and is NOT the God of Scripture.
 

Tong2020

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You are contradicting yourself.
First, you agree that the Bible states that a Christian STILL sins - then you say that the Bible insists that a Christian CANNOT sin.

Make up
your mind . . .

Diversion perhaps?

If you just read carefully and try to understand what I posted, you would not make that comment.

Those born of God, like Paul, cannot sin as per 1 John 3:9.

But why do Paul still sin then? Read Romans 7. Paul explains it all there. So I had not only said that the Christian still sins, but had done so not without scriptural basis and explanation.

You on the other hand say that the Bible doesn't say that the Christian can't sin, but could not deal with 1 John 3:9 which says the exact and direct opposite of what you say. Clearly, it is you who needs some explaining to do which you had not so far done. Or had you made up your mind yet on that?

So, make up your mind. Time for you to refute properly if you must. Else, just say so and perhaps we can move on to another point relative to the subject under this thread.

Tong
R0038
 

Tong2020

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Then I suggest you open your Bible . . .

John 3:16
“For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whoever believes in Him shall not perish, but have eternal life.

Romans 5:15

But the free gift is not like the transgression. For if by the transgression of the one the many died, much more did the grace of God and the gift by the grace of the one Man, Jesus Christ, abound to the many.

Romans 6:23

For the wages of sin is death, but the free gift of God is eternal life in Christ Jesus our Lord.

Romans 8:32
He who did not spare His own Son, but delivered Him over for us all, how will He not also with Him freely give us all things?

2 Corinthians 9:15
Thanks be to God for His indescribable gift!

Ephesians 2:8
For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God;

A gift is given freely.
It can be accepted or rejected . . .

I suggest we don't only open our Bible but also read, and most importantly, understand what it says and not misuse passages.

You said "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it."
I said "
Can't find that in scriptures. If you did, please kindly quote the scriptures. Thanks."

John 3:16 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it."
Romans 5:15 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".

Romans 6:23 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".

Romans 8:32 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".
2 Corinthians 9:15 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".
Ephesians 2:8 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".

As it is then, you have not shown scriptures that says that or anything to that effect.

Tong
R0039
 

Tong2020

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This is absolute Calvinist nonsense.

The idea of Double Predestination is an abominable, anti-Biblical human invention. As I stated earlier - NOWHERE do the Scriptures indicate that God is a monster who sends people kicking and screaming into Hell against their will - nor does He drag anybody into Heaven kicking and screaming against their will.

He is not some sort of Cosmic Rapist who has to "force" His love one some while tossing the rest into Hell at His pleasure. He has endowed upon us a FREE WILL that allows US to make the choice to follow Him or to reject Him.
That is the epitome of love.

The monster YOU describe was invented by John Calvin in the 16th century -and is NOT the God of Scripture.
You know very well that saying that does not make a refutation of any of what I said in my post. At most, it's a deviation or evasion.

I did not even mention anything nor any hint of what you call "double predestination" there. Nor did I say that God is a monster who sends people kicking and screaming into Hell against their will - nor does He drag anybody into Heaven kicking and screaming against their will. Those are your words and comes from you, not from me.

I did not also say nor mention anything that God is some sort of Cosmic Rapist who has to "force" His love one some while tossing the rest into Hell at His pleasure. Those again are your words and comes from you, not from me.

So, all can read and see, as you also would see, that what you say there is all coming from you and not a tiny bit from me. It's all straw man that you created there that you beat upon. You said nothing that refutes what I posted nor addresses anything in my post. Isn't that an indication of what your signature "exposing anti-Catholic lies online for 17 years " really is. So, go ahead and properly refute, if you must, what I posted in post #3353.

Tong
R0040
 

BreadOfLife

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Diversion perhaps?

If you just read carefully and try to understand what I posted, you would not make that comment.

Those born of God, like Paul, cannot sin as per 1 John 3:9.

But why do Paul still sin then? Read Romans 7. Paul explains it all there. So I had not only said that the Christian still sins, but had done so not without scriptural basis and explanation.

You on the other hand say that the Bible doesn't say that the Christian can't sin, but could not deal with 1 John 3:9 which says the exact and direct opposite of what you say. Clearly, it is you who needs some explaining to do which you had not so far done. Or had you made up your mind yet on that?

So, make up your mind. Time for you to refute properly if you must. Else, just say so and perhaps we can move on to another point relative to the subject under this thread.

Tong
R0038
Another contradictory post.

YOU have stated that a Christian "cannot" sin as per 1 John 3:9.
YOU stated that Paul "could not sin" as per 1 John 3:9.
THEN - you stated that Paul DID continue to sin as per Romans 7.

You really need to go over your notes . . .
 
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BreadOfLife

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I suggest we don't only open our Bible but also read, and most importantly, understand what it says and not misuse passages.

You said "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it."
I said "
Can't find that in scriptures. If you did, please kindly quote the scriptures. Thanks."

John 3:16 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it."
Romans 5:15 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".

Romans 6:23 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".

Romans 8:32 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".
2 Corinthians 9:15 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".
Ephesians 2:8 does not at all say "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it".

As it is then, you have not shown scriptures that says that or anything to that effect.

Tong
R0039
Ummmm, a "gift" by definition is free.

A gift can be accepted or rejected. What part of that are you having difficulty with??
Calvinism has perverted the gospel by insisting that God forces salvation on some - then forces damnation on the rest.

If you're looking for the actual phrase, "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it" - you won't find it. The teaching is there, as I have amply shown - just not the exact wording that YOU require. Read the Bible as it it was intended to be read - NOT only in the wooden, literal sense that you YOU approach it.

Why don't you pull out your Bible and show me where the word "Trinity" is? Surely it must be in Scripture if it is the most basic tenet of Christianity. While you're at - why don't you also show me where the Bible mentions the word "Incarnation"?? That is ALSO a basic tenet of Christianity.

Happy hunting . . .
 

BreadOfLife

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You know very well that saying that does not make a refutation of any of what I said in my post. At most, it's a deviation or evasion.

I did not even mention anything nor any hint of what you call "double predestination" there. Nor did I say that God is a monster who sends people kicking and screaming into Hell against their will - nor does He drag anybody into Heaven kicking and screaming against their will. Those are your words and comes from you, not from me.

I did not also say nor mention anything that God is some sort of Cosmic Rapist who has to "force" His love one some while tossing the rest into Hell at His pleasure. Those again are your words and comes from you, not from me.

So, all can read and see, as you also would see, that what you say there is all coming from you and not a tiny bit from me. It's all straw man that you created there that you beat upon. You said nothing that refutes what I posted nor addresses anything in my post. Isn't that an indication of what your signature "exposing anti-Catholic lies online for 17 years " really is. So, go ahead and properly refute, if you must, what I posted in post #3353.

Tong
R0040
I already HAVE refuted your position in post #3353 - about THREE times now.
You're not the first poster to repeat the same answered question after having lost an argument.

Play another record. This one's broken . . .
 

mailmandan

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Call it what it is - Catholics believe in salvation by faith and works, not salvation by works. Paul preached salvation by faith and works - he preached against salvation by works.
Paul preached salvation through faith, not works, and not salvation through faith and works. (Romans 3:22:28; 4:4-6; 5:1; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 1:9 etc..).
 

Eternally Grateful

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That is a Calvinist conclusion based on a false premise. God does everything so that means we don't have to do anything???

you just explained the whole problem

it’s not Calvinist. It’s the word of god

god did anything because there was nothing we could do

the fact you think you can do something. Well that’s the problem. It’s the reason the Jew crucified Christ. They thought as you do
 

Tong2020

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Another contradictory post.

YOU have stated that a Christian "cannot" sin as per 1 John 3:9.
YOU stated that Paul "could not sin" as per 1 John 3:9.
THEN - you stated that Paul DID continue to sin as per Romans 7.

You really need to go over your notes . . .

I will just have to repost, but this time with emphasis, as there is nothing new said.

Diversion perhaps? It's slowly appears to be so.

Those born of God, like Paul, cannot sin as per 1 John 3:9.

But why do Paul still sin then? Read Romans 7. Paul explains it all there. So I had not only said that the Christian still sins, but had done so not without scriptural basis and explanation.

Now here is your belief that is clearly contrary to and against the scriptures, and without even an attempt for an explanation, even after several opportunities given for you to explain and defend your belief. For as to this date, you have not denied having this belief and teaching it in this board.

You say that the Bible doesn't say that the Christian can't sin, but could not deal with 1 John 3:9 which says the exact and direct opposite of what you say. For the nth time, please explain, unless you made up your mind on that.

So, make up your mind. Time for you to refute properly if you must. Else, just say so and perhaps we can move on to another point relative to the subject under this thread.

Tong
R0048
 

Tong2020

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Ummmm, a "gift" by definition is free.

A gift can be accepted or rejected. What part of that are you having difficulty with??
Calvinism has perverted the gospel by insisting that God forces salvation on some - then forces damnation on the rest.

If you're looking for the actual phrase, "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it" - you won't find it. The teaching is there, as I have amply shown - just not the exact wording that YOU require. Read the Bible as it it was intended to be read - NOT only in the wooden, literal sense that you YOU approach it.

Why don't you pull out your Bible and show me where the word "Trinity" is? Surely it must be in Scripture if it is the most basic tenet of Christianity. While you're at - why don't you also show me where the Bible mentions the word "Incarnation"?? That is ALSO a basic tenet of Christianity.

Happy hunting . . .

You said "Salvation is a free gift - IF we accept it."
I said "Can't find that in scriptures. If you did, please kindly quote the scriptures. Thanks."


There is no argument there. Only for you to quote scriptures that says that or anything to that effect. If none, then none. If there is, then show. That simple. So, I am not looking for actual phrase, more so require it.

So what you say there does not address my simple request.

Tong
R0049
 

Tong2020

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I already HAVE refuted your position in post #3353 - about THREE times now.
You're not the first poster to repeat the same answered question after having lost an argument.

Play another record. This one's broken . . .

Really? If that is what you call a refutation, then so be it then with you. I'll leave this matter to the viewing and reading public. They could easily follow the conversation by just clicking on the links within the post to lead them to the previous post.

Somehow I now have an idea how you go about what is written there below your post, that is, "exposing anti-Catholic lies online for 17 years . . .".

Tong
R0050
 

BreadOfLife

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I will just have to repost, but this time with emphasis, as there is nothing new said.

Diversion perhaps? It's slowly appears to be so.

Those born of God, like Paul, cannot sin as per 1 John 3:9.

But why do Paul still sin then? Read Romans 7. Paul explains it all there. So I had not only said that the Christian still sins, but had done so not without scriptural basis and explanation.

Now here is your belief that is clearly contrary to and against the scriptures, and without even an attempt for an explanation, even after several opportunities given for you to explain and defend your belief. For as to this date, you have not denied having this belief and teaching it in this board.

You say that the Bible doesn't say that the Christian can't sin, but could not deal with 1 John 3:9 which says the exact and direct opposite of what you say. For the nth time, please explain, unless you made up your mind on that.

So, make up your mind. Time for you to refute properly if you must. Else, just say so and perhaps we can move on to another point relative to the subject under this thread.

Tong
R0048
Really? If that is what you call a refutation, then so be it then with you. I'll leave this matter to the viewing and reading public. They could easily follow the conversation by just clicking on the links within the post to lead them to the previous post.

Somehow I now have an idea how you go about what is written there below your post, that is, "exposing anti-Catholic lies online for 17 years . . .".

Tong
R0050
Really? If that is what you call a refutation, then so be it then with you. I'll leave this matter to the viewing and reading public. They could easily follow the conversation by just clicking on the links within the post to lead them to the previous post.

Somehow I now have an idea how you go about what is written there below your post, that is, "exposing anti-Catholic lies online for 17 years . . .".

Tong
R0050
You can repeat your posts until the cows come home - but the refutations will not change.

1) Christians STILL stumble in sin, although we strive NOT to (Matt. 18:21-22. James 5:16, 1 John 1:8).

2) God knows everything from ALL eternity because he WAS in the past - He IS in the present and He IS in the future - ALL at the same time (2 Pet. 3:8, Isa. 40:28, Heb. 1:8).

3) John 3:9 is talking about the fact that those in Christ don't live a life of willful rebellion against God - in context.
YOU can't seem to grasp Scriptural context.
 

RogerDC

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Paul preached salvation through faith, not works, and not salvation through faith and works. (Romans 3:22:28; 4:4-6; 5:1; Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 1:9 etc..).
In the verses you quote in your post, Paul is saying no one is saved by works without faith - he is not referring to works with faith.

If Paul did not preach salvation thru faith and works, why does he warn believers in Gal 5 and 1Cor 6 that their sins can result in them not inheriting the kingdom of God?
 

Illuminator

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you just explained the whole problem

it’s not Calvinist. It’s the word of god

god did anything because there was nothing we could do

the fact you think you can do something. Well that’s the problem. It’s the reason the Jew crucified Christ. They thought as you do
There is nothing we can do APART FROM THE GRACE OF CHRIST, so it can be called a good work, which still requires out cooperation which you seem to deny. This has nothing to do with why the Jews crucified Christ, our sins crucified Christ, which is a red herring to the discussion. Anti-Catholics like you are unwilling or unable to understand the relationship of human free will to God’s grace. We believe we can cooperate with God’s grace in order to “merit.” Yet that very merit is itself completely an act of God’s grace. If you can't or won't understand my posts, stop pretending that you do and spare me the condescending idiocy.

You are lashing out at me because the "works based Gospel" that you wrongly accuse Catholicism of is a LIE, a MYTH, and you refuse to let go of it, evidenced by your quoting me out of context of post #3344, that you are unable or unwilling to comprehend.
 
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Illuminator

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Then let me clarify.

For you to grasp what I am asking, listen to what I said "Before all creation". So, that brings us at a specific point in eternity past when there was yet no creation. Of course God is not confined in time. But how else could we communicate if not in our language? So, using our language, let me say the following. Now, anything after that point could be said to be future. As to what this future is that you say God foreknows is what I am trying to understand from BreadOfLife and now from you. My question is whether what you say God sees and knows in the future (perhaps such as Lucifer rebelling against Him and Eve's sinning and so of Adam's sinning), are things contained in His plan or are of random things He did not know will happen if not for His power of foreknowing.

This is what I said to BreadOfLife. Before all creation, whatever future you are talking about that God sees ahead and knows, could only be that which God has determined to do (plan) and that will certainly come to pass (accomplish according to His plan). So, having said that, God's foreknowledge could only be anything but what He determined to do (plan) and that which will come to pass according to His plan. There is nothing that happens and come to pass that God does not know and not according to His will, purpose, pleasure, and glory. There simply is no random event for God. God's foreknowledge is not of things that happens in random but of things which God has determined to do (plan) and willed according to His purpose to come to pass (accomplish according to His plan). This is critical in that, an erroneous take with regards the foreknowledge of God leads to erroneous doctrines.

You said "God did not plan The Fall,...". So, are you suggesting that the Fall was some random event? That is not what I understand, when I read in scriptures that it is God who put the tree of the knowledge of good and evil inside the garden where He placed Adam and Eve, who gave commandment to Adam to not eat of the fruit of said tree, who allowed the devil (the serpent in Genesis 3) to tempt and deceive Eve. That is not random at all, don't you see?

You said "..he planned that all of the offspring of Adam and Eve remain in the state of sanctifying grace. That is the norm." What is that sanctifying grace you mention there? I understand by your statement that in this "sanctifying grace", those people from Adam to before the flood at Noah's time, were included, as well as those from Noah to the time before Jesus Christ came to the world. How have they remained in the state of "sanctifying grace" that you are talking about? Please explain, so I could understand what you are saying regarding that. And please explain what you meant when you say "that is the norm". It seems to be that you have some norm that you know and make as some sort of a foundation or some sort of a standard.

You said "Sin entering the world is not the norm. That's why he sent a Savior, to restore what is normal (sanctifying grace)." As I said, it seems to be that you have some norm that you know and make as some sort of a foundation or standard. Please tell and show where that is coming from. Please explain. Thanks.

Tong
R0030
Adam and Eve were SINLESS before The Fall. That is the norm that God intended for all their offspring. That is the foundation I speak of. The fall of Satan was not a random act of God either, Satan had free will. Now would be a good time to admit you are a Calvinist, or lean to Calvinistic thinking.
1 John 3:9 does not prove Christians in the here and now, physically, on earth, can't sin. 1 John 3:2 refers to the hereafter, after we are dead and with God, not before (for we shall see him as he is) 1 John 3:3 refers to the HOPE of salvation, not the assurance. We have the assurance after we are dead, not before. We can be assured of our salvation by moral certitude, but no one can be 100% infallibly assured until after we are dead, not before.

1 John 3:11-24 explains exactly who are the "born of God". Top summarize, those who love one another and keep the commandments are born of God. Love is not an intellectual exercise or warm fuzzies. Love is faith in action, acts of the will. Note 1 John 3:17 But if any one has the world’s goods and sees his brother in need, yet closes his heart against him, how does God’s love abide in him? This is "faith alone" and it doesn't cut it. And what about the next verse: 18 Little children, let us not love in word or speech but in deed and in truth. That means actions by, in, and through the grace of Christ, that I have already explained at length. It is what we strive for, not something that is automatically attained, unless you wish to argue that you are perfect, or that deeds are not actions (good works).
Repeatedly harping about 1 John 3:9 to prove your point doesn't work.

in deed and in truth:

547010df78fc702478b9b93ddbf2dacc.jpg
 
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mailmandan

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In the verses you quote in your post, Paul is saying no one is saved by works without faith - he is not referring to works with faith.

If Paul did not preach salvation thru faith and works, why does he warn believers in Gal 5 and 1Cor 6 that their sins can result in them not inheriting the kingdom of God?
Paul clearly said saved through faith, not works in Ephesians 2:8,9. It doesn't get any clearer than that. Who said Paul was warning believers in Galatians 5 and 1 Corinthians 6 that their sins can result in them not inheriting the kingdom of God? In 1 Corinthians 6:9, we read - Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? The unrighteousness are not believers. Paul goes on to give a list of sins in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 and in Galatians 5:19-21 and in verse 21, Paul goes on to say that those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.

In 1 John 3:9, we read - No one who is born of God practices sin..

1 Corinthians 6:11, Paul goes on to say - And such were some of you. But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God. Here we have a CONTRAST between the unrighteous and the righteous and it's not hard to find the unrighteous (who may even look like the righteous) mixed in with the righteous, hence the warning.
 

Illuminator

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Paul clearly said saved through faith, not works in Ephesians 2:8,9. It doesn't get any clearer than that.
But you muddy the waters by using "works" apart from grace through faith, which is useless works. That's what "not of yourselves" means. Notice that Paul never says we are saved by faith alone, and you can't show me where he does. James in James 2 does not use “ergon nomou” or "works of the law" He uses “ergois agathois” or "good works". Therefore, Paul’s “works of the law”, or “ergon nomou” and James’ “works” are entirely different types of works. Again, they could never contradict each other because the Scriptures are the inspired word of God. Yet using these terms interchangeably as if they mean the same thing is a constant error found throughout this board.

Eph. 2:8-9 – we have been saved by grace through faith, not because of “works,” lest anyone boast. This much-quoted verse by Protestants refers to the “works” of the Mosaic law or any works performed in a legalistic sense, where we view God as a debtor to us, and not as our heavenly Father. Paul is teaching us that, with the coming of Christ, we are now saved by grace through faith, not by Mosaic or legal works.

This is why Paul refers to “works of ourselves” and so we can’t “boast.” Paul says the same thing about “works” Rom. 4:2,4 – if Abraham was justified by “works,” he would have something to “boast” about. Here, the wages are not counted as grace, but debt. “Boasting” does not attribute works to God, but to oneself. But good works done in faith are necessary for justification (James 2:24, etc.) because we receive rewards by grace, not by legal obligation, and we attribute these works to God, not ourselves.

Eph. 2:10 – in quoting Ephesians 2:8-9, Protestants invariably ignore the very next verse. Right after Paul’s teaching on “works” referring to Mosaic law, Paul says we are created in Christ for “good works” – a clear distinction between “works of law” (Mosaic law/legal payment) and “good works” (law of Christ/reward of grace). Yet the confusion about "works" never ends because that is how you have been trained to think.
Who said Paul was warning believers in Galatians 5 and 1 Corinthians 6 that their sins can result in them not inheriting the kingdom of God? In 1 Corinthians 6:9, we read - Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? The unrighteousness are not believers. Paul goes on to give a list of sins in 1 Corinthians 6:9-10 and in Galatians 5:19-21 and in verse 21, Paul goes on to say that those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.
Agreed, but your abuse of Ephesians 2:8 seems to never end.
In 1 John 3:9, we read - No one who is born of God practices sin..
Repeatedly harping about 1 John 3:9 to prove your point doesn't work, as explained in post #3377, which you ignored. You demonstrate a lack of harmony with 1 John 1:8-10 with standard one verse theology. @Tong commits the same error.
1 Corinthians 6:11, Paul goes on to say - And such were some of you. But you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus and by the Spirit of our God. Here we have a CONTRAST between the unrighteous and the righteous and it's not hard to find the unrighteous (who may even look like the righteous) mixed in with the righteous, hence the warning.
Agreed, but nowhere in scripture does it say we are saved, justified or sanctified by faith alone where hope and love are absent. That is a stubborn, false man made tradition.

The so called reformers were forced to change the meaning of "faith" to exclude hope and love. They didn't "reform" anything. They invented a whole new religion. See Galatians 5:4, Galatians 5:14; Galatians 6:2
 
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mailmandan

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But you muddy the waters by using "works" apart from grace through faith, which is useless works. That's what "not of yourselves" means.
"Not of yourselves" means not of works. Salvation by grace through faith and works is how you muddy the waters.

Notice that Paul never says we are saved by faith alone, and you can't show me where he does.
Notice that Paul never saved we are saved by faith and works, and you can't show me where he does. The Bible clearly states in many passages of scripture that we are saved through belief/faith "apart from additions or modifications." (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18,36; 6:40,47; 11:25,26; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 1:16; 3:22-28; 4:5; 5:1; 10:4; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8; Philippians 3:9; 2 Timothy 3:15; 1 John 5:13 etc..).

You don't need to add the word "alone" next to "belief/faith" in each of these passages of scripture above in order to figure out that the words, "belief/faith" stand alone in connection with receiving eternal life/salvation. Do these many passages of scripture say belief/faith "plus something else?" Plus works? NO. So then it's faith (rightly understood) IN CHRIST ALONE.

James in James 2 does not use “ergon nomou” or "works of the law" He uses “ergois agathois” or "good works". Therefore, Paul’s “works of the law”, or “ergon nomou” and James’ “works” are entirely different types of works. Again, they could never contradict each other because the Scriptures are the inspired word of God. Yet using these terms interchangeably as if they mean the same thing is a constant error found throughout this board.
Paul NEVER said saved by faith AND "ergon nomou" or faith AND "ergois agathois" so your argument falls apart and also because in James 2:15-16, the example of a "work" that James gives is: "If a brother or sister is naked and destitute of daily food, and one of you says to them, "Depart in peace, be warmed and filled," but you do not give them the things which are needed for the body, what does it profit?" To give a brother or sister these things needed for the body would certainly be a "good work" yet to neglect such a brother or sister and not give them the things needed for the body is to break the second great commandment "love your neighbor as yourself" (Matthew 22:39) as found written in the law of Moses. (Leviticus 19:18)

In Matthew 22:37-40, we read: Jesus said to him, 'You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart, with all your soul, and with all your mind.' This is the first and great commandment. And the second is like it: 'You shall love your neighbor as yourself.' On these two commandments hang all the Law and the Prophets. Please tell me, which good works could a Christian accomplish which are "completely detached" from these two great commandments which are found in the law of Moses? (Deuteronomy 6:5; Leviticus 19:18).

When it comes to the moral aspect of the law, you cannot dissect good works from the law, so the not saved by "these" works (works of the law) but saved by "those" works (good works) argument is bogus. Paul did not limit works only to specific works of the law. In Titus 3:5 Paul said it was not by works of righteousness which we have done, but according to his mercy He saved us.. Also, in 2 Timothy 1:9, Paul said that God saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works.. So it's works in general. Faith (not works) is accounted as righteousness/God imputes righteousness apart from works. (Romans 4:5-6) Crystal clear.

Eph. 2:8-9 – we have been saved by grace through faith, not because of “works,” lest anyone boast. This much-quoted verse by Protestants refers to the “works” of the Mosaic law or any works performed in a legalistic sense, where we view God as a debtor to us, and not as our heavenly Father. Paul is teaching us that, with the coming of Christ, we are now saved by grace through faith, not by Mosaic or legal works.
You cannot dissect good works from the moral aspect of the Mosaic law, as I explained above, so again, your argument falls apart. Paul went on to say in verse 10 that we are created in Christ Jesus unto/for good works, we we are saved FOR good works and NOT BY good works.

This is why Paul refers to “works of ourselves” and so we can’t “boast.” Paul says the same thing about “works” Rom. 4:2,4 – if Abraham was justified by “works,” he would have something to “boast” about. Here, the wages are not counted as grace, but debt. “Boasting” does not attribute works to God, but to oneself.
Ephesians 2:8 (AMPC) - For it is by free grace (God’s unmerited favor) that you are saved (delivered from judgment and made partakers of Christ’s salvation) through [your] faith. And this [salvation] is not of yourselves [of your own doing, it came not through your own striving], but it is the gift of God. Romans 4:2-3 If Abraham was justified (accounted as righteous) by works (any works) he would have something to boast about, but not before God. Abraham believed God and it (faith, not works) was accounted to him for righteousness.

But good works done in faith are necessary for justification (James 2:24, etc.) because we receive rewards by grace, not by legal obligation, and we attribute these works to God, not ourselves.
False. This is just Roman Catholic smoke and mirrors. In James 2:24, James is not using the word "justified" here to mean "accounted as righteous" but is shown to be righteous. James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3). Works bear out the justification that already came by faith.

In the Strong's Exhaustive Concordance of the Bible, the Greek word for justified "dikaioo" #1344 is:

1. to render righteous or such he ought to be
2. to show, exhibit, evidence, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3. to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be

In Matthew 12:37, we read - "For by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned." This is because our words (and our works) reveal the condition of our hearts. Words/works are evidences for, or against a man being in a state of righteousness.

God is said to have been justified by those who were baptized by John the Baptist (Luke 7:29). This act pronounced or declared God to be righteous. It did not make him righteous. The basis or ground for the pronouncement was the fact that God IS righteous. Notice that the NIV reads, "acknowledged that God's way was right.." The ESV reads, "they declared God just.." This is the "sense" in which God was "justified." He was shown to be righteous.

Matthew 11:19 "The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax-gatherers and sinners!' Yet wisdom is justified/vindicated/shown to be right by her deeds."