The Repentant Woman, Mary of Bethany, and Mary Magdalene: One Figure?

[Moonwood]

I agree that it can happen. And see the detail. But this detail is not described for Mary Magdalene. No specific sins or general sinful life shown for Mary Magdalene. What she did to get 7 demons, how she got 7 demons, and what were the effects of the 7 demons. All blanks.....Theologians do not fill in the blanks. So all I am going to agree to is that Yeshua cast out 7 demons from her. The details are not there.
So again, nothing to tie the two women or the two events together.

You’re right that Luke doesn’t list Mary Magdalene’s individual sins. But that doesn’t change what Luke’s vocabulary means. We don’t need Luke to describe her symptoms to know what “seven demons” means — we only need Luke to describe what “seven spirits” means in his own writing. And he does.

“It brings seven other spirits more evil than itself, and the last state of that person is worse than the first.” (Luke 11:26)

This is Luke’s own explanation of the category:

• one demon = serious spiritual bondage
• seven demons = complete spiritual devastation

You asked me to “find it in Luke,” and this is in Luke.
This is not me “putting words in Luke’s mouth.”
This is Luke interpreting Luke.

You don’t need a biography of Mary’s sins to understand the meaning of the phrase “seven demons.”
Just like you don’t need a biography of every Pharisee to understand what “Pharisee” means.

Luke defines the category.
Mary belongs to the category.
Therefore the meaning applies.

That’s not speculation.
That’s basic exegesis.

No reference.....at all.

John 11:2 absolutely contains a reference. It identifies Lazarus and Martha's sister, Mary, by pointing to a previous hair‑wiping event. That’s not my interpretation — that’s the wording of the verse.

“It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped His feet with her hair..." (John 11:2)

John is writing this before the Bethany anointing in John 12.
So he cannot be referring to the event that hasn’t happened yet in his narrative.

He is pointing backward.

He is identifying her by a past hair‑wiping event.

That is a reference.

You don’t have to agree with the conclusion, but you cannot say the reference “is not there.”
It is right in the verse.

 

[Grailhunter]

And the only earlier hair‑wiping event in any Gospel is Luke 7. There is no other one. John gives no alternative earlier anointing. The Gospels give no alternative earlier hair‑wiping. So simply saying “hair wiping happened in both stories” does not answer the question — it actually reinforces the textual link John is making.

Absolutely not. Two indications of a women wiping Yeshua's feet. That is all it is. Women anointing men is not a common practice. So no reason to expect several examples. Still the Apostles did not point out that Mary of Bethany had no authority to anoint Yeshua. So maybe they knew she had the authority to do it. Would it make a mockery of anointing if she did not have authority?
Then again Christ's and the thieves crucifixions are the only crucifixion in the scriptures but that does not mean there were no other crucifixions.....Tens of thousands of Jews were crucified. So we really do not know how common the wiping of the feet with hair is.
Before His crucifixion Yeshua washed the feet of the Apostles, that did not signify that He was a sinner.

 

[Grailhunter]

You’re right that Luke doesn’t list Mary Magdalene’s individual sins. But that doesn’t change what Luke’s vocabulary means. We don’t need Luke to describe her symptoms to know what “seven demons” means — we only need Luke to describe what “seven spirits” means in his own writing. And he does.

No we do not know the details, just that Yeshua cast them out.

 

[Moonwood]

No we do not know the details, just that Yeshua cast them out.

But that doesn’t address the point. Biblical categories have meanings even when the author doesn’t list every detail. Luke doesn’t need to describe Mary’s symptoms for us to understand what “seven demons” means — because Luke already explained what “seven spirits” means in his own Gospel.

“Then it goes and takes seven other spirits more wicked than itself… and the last state of that person is worse than the first.” (Luke 11:26)

This is Luke’s own definition of the category. Not mine. Not tradition. Not theologians.

Luke shows:

• one demon = serious spiritual bondage
• seven demons = complete spiritual devastation

You asked me to “find it in Luke,” and this is in Luke.
This is not “adding details.”
This is simply letting Luke interpret Luke.

Saying “we don’t know the details” does not erase the meaning of the category.
Luke often gives categories without biographies:

• the “siful woman” in Luke 7
• the thief on the cross
• the mute demoniac
• the woman “bound by Satan”

None of these have detailed backstories, yet the categories still have meaning.

Luke defines the category.
Mary belongs to the category.
Therefore the meaning applies.

That’s not speculation.
That’s basic exegesis.

No reference.....at all.

John 11:2 absolutely contains a reference. It identifies Lazarus and Martha's sister, Mary, by pointing to a previous hair‑wiping event. That’s not my interpretation — that’s the wording of the verse:

“It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped His feet with her hair..." (John 11:2)

John is writing this before the Bethany anointing in John 12.
So he cannot be referring to the event that hasn’t happened yet in his narrative.

He is pointing backward.

He is identifying her by a past hair‑wiping event.

That is a reference.

You don’t have to agree with the conclusion, but you cannot say the reference “is not there.”
It is right in the verse.

So here is the simple, textual question:
If John 11:2 identifies Lazarus and Martha's sister Mary by a previous hair‑wiping event, and Luke 7 is the only earlier hair‑wiping event in any Gospel, what other event do you believe John is referring to?

 

[Grailhunter]

But that doesn’t address the point. Biblical categories have meanings even when the author doesn’t list every detail. Luke doesn’t need to describe Mary’s symptoms for us to understand what “seven demons” means — because Luke already explained what “seven spirits” means in his own Gospel.

“Then it goes and takes seven other spirits more wicked than itself… and the last state of that person is worse than the first.” (Luke 11:26)

This is Luke’s own definition of the category. Not mine. Not tradition. Not theologians.

Luke shows:

• one demon = serious spiritual bondage
• seven demons = complete spiritual devastation

You asked me to “find it in Luke,” and this is in Luke.
This is not “adding details.”
This is simply letting Luke interpret Luke.

Saying “we don’t know the details” does not erase the meaning of the category.
Luke often gives categories without biographies:

• the “siful woman” in Luke 7
• the thief on the cross
• the mute demoniac
• the woman “bound by Satan”

None of these have detailed backstories, yet the categories still have meaning.

Luke defines the category.
Mary belongs to the category.
Therefore the meaning applies.

That’s not speculation.
That’s basic exegesis.



John 11:2 absolutely contains a reference. It identifies Lazarus and Martha's sister, Mary, by pointing to a previous hair‑wiping event. That’s not my interpretation — that’s the wording of the verse:

“It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped His feet with her hair..." (John 11:2)

John is writing this before the Bethany anointing in John 12.
So he cannot be referring to the event that hasn’t happened yet in his narrative.

He is pointing backward.

He is identifying her by a past hair‑wiping event.

That is a reference.

You don’t have to agree with the conclusion, but you cannot say the reference “is not there.”
It is right in the verse.

So here is the simple, textual question:
If John 11:2 identifies Lazarus and Martha's sister Mary by a previous hair‑wiping event, and Luke 7 is the only earlier hair‑wiping event in any Gospel, what other event do you believe John is referring to?

Just because tens of thousands of Jews were crucified does not mean they all deserved it and their crucifixions do not mean the same thing as Yeshua's crucifixion.

Nothing erases anything, each are separate and each has a meaning within the details given.

You asked me to “find it in Luke,” and this is in Luke.
This is not “adding details.”
This is simply letting Luke interpret Luke.

You cannot add details because they are not there.

Luke defines the category.
Mary belongs to the category.
Therefore the meaning applies.

Not at all. Again and again and again.....no sin is directly described for Mary Magdalene.
You are boring me now. Unless you have something different to say, this is over.

 

[Moonwood]

Just because tens of thousands of Jews were crucified does not mean they all deserved it and their crucifixions do not mean the same thing as Yeshua's crucifixion.

Nothing erases anything, each are separate and each has a meaning within the details given.

You asked me to “find it in Luke,” and this is in Luke.
This is not “adding details.”
This is simply letting Luke interpret Luke.

You cannot add details because they are not there.

Luke defines the category.
Mary belongs to the category.
Therefore the meaning applies.

Not at all. Again and again and again.....no sin is directly described for Mary Magdalene.
You are boring me now. Unless you have something different to say, this is over.

You’re right that Luke doesn’t list Mary Magdalene’s individual sins. But that was never the claim. The claim is simply that Luke defines what “seven spirits” means in Luke 11:26, and that meaning applies whenever Luke uses the phrase — including in Luke 8:2. Lack of biographical detail does not erase the meaning of the category. Luke often gives categories without listing personal histories. That’s how his narrative works.

And none of this touches the actual issue in John. John 11:2 identifies Mary of Bethany by a previous hair‑wiping event. John is writing before the Bethany anointing in John 12, so he cannot be referring to that event. He is pointing backward. The only earlier hair‑wiping event in any Gospel is Luke 7. You haven’t named any alternative earlier event, because there isn’t one.

If you’re done, that’s fine. But the reference in John 11:2 is still there, and the question remains unanswered.

 

[Grailhunter]

Luke defines what “seven spirits” means in Luke 11:26,

Spirits...demons 7....Do they only travel in 7's. Only possesses in 7's. It is just an example.

 

[Grailhunter]

. John 11:2 identifies Mary of Bethany by a previous hair‑wiping event

You are repeating yourself.
In no way identifies a previous hair-wiping event by the same person. Just two separate stories that involves hair wiping.

 

[Grailhunter]

He is pointing backward.

He is not pointing anywhere, backwards or forwards. Not referring to anything. Just telling a story.

 

[Grailhunter]

You haven’t named any alternative earlier event, because there isn’t one.

I don't refer to any other hair whipping event because there are none.

 

[Moonwood]

Spirits...demons 7....Do they only travel in 7's. Only possesses in 7's. It is just an example.

No, Luke 11:26 is not saying demons only travel in groups of seven. It’s not about demon logistics. It’s about the meaning of the number seven in Luke’s vocabulary. In Luke’s Gospel, “seven” is the number Jesus uses to describe a person’s spiritual condition when it is at its absolute worst — “the last state of that person is worse than the first.”

So when Luke says Mary had “seven demons,” he is using the same category he already defined: total spiritual ruin. Not because demons always come in sevens, but because Luke uses “seven spirits” as his own literary marker for complete devastation.

You asked me to find where Luke explains what “seven spirits” means, and Luke 11:26 is exactly that. It’s not about counting demons. It’s about the severity of the condition.

He is not pointing anywhere, backwards or forwards. Not referring to anything. Just telling a story.

"Now a certain man was ill, Lazarus of Bethany, the village of Mary and her sister Martha. It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped his feet with her hair, whose brother Lazarus was ill. But when Jesus heard it he said, “This illness is not unto death; it is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified by means of it."

John pauses the narrative here.
He is not describing something happening in John 11.
He is identifying which Mary he means by referring to something she had already done.

John uses past tense:

• anointed
• wiped

These are completed actions.

And John writes this before the Bethany anointing in John 12.

So the question is simple and textual:

Which hair-wiping anointing is John referring to in John 11:2? It cannot be the hair‑wiping with oil in John 12, because that event hasn’t happened yet in his narrative.

 

[Grailhunter]

No, Luke 11:26 is not saying demons only travel in groups of seven. It’s not about demon logistics. It’s about the meaning of the number seven in Luke’s vocabulary. In Luke’s Gospel, “seven” is the number Jesus uses to describe a person’s spiritual condition when it is at its absolute worst — “the last state of that person is worse than the first.”

If he used the number 7 to describe a person's spiritual condition, he is saying their condition is Divine.

 

[Grailhunter]

No, Luke 11:26 is not saying demons only travel in groups of seven. It’s not about demon logistics. It’s about the meaning of the number seven in Luke’s vocabulary. In Luke’s Gospel, “seven” is the number Jesus uses to describe a person’s spiritual condition when it is at its absolute worst — “the last state of that person is worse than the first.”

So when Luke says Mary had “seven demons,” he is using the same category he already defined: total spiritual ruin. Not because demons always come in sevens, but because Luke uses “seven spirits” as his own literary marker for complete devastation.

You asked me to find where Luke explains what “seven spirits” means, and Luke 11:26 is exactly that. It’s not about counting demons. It’s about the severity of the condition.



"Now a certain man was ill, Lazarus of Bethany, the village of Mary and her sister Martha. It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped his feet with her hair, whose brother Lazarus was ill. But when Jesus heard it he said, “This illness is not unto death; it is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified by means of it."

John pauses the narrative here.
He is not describing something happening in John 11.
He is identifying which Mary he means by referring to something she had already done.

John uses past tense:

• anointed
• wiped

These are completed actions.

And John writes this before the Bethany anointing in John 12.

So the question is simple and textual:

Which hair-wiping anointing is John referring to in John 11:2? It cannot be the hair‑wiping with oil in John 12, because that event hasn’t happened yet in his narrative.

If the scripture said--->It was the Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment, and wiped His feet with her hair at the Pharisees' house....
But it does not say "at the Pharisees' house. All we have done here is establish that Mary of Bethany anointed Yeshua more than once.
Details, details.

Was Mary of Bethany the “Repentant Whore” Who Anointed Jesus?​

No — according to the biblical accounts, Mary of Bethany and the unnamed “repentant woman” in Luke 7 are distinct individuals, and Mary of Bethany is not described as a sinner or prostitute

Two Different Anointings​

1. Luke 7:36–50 – The “Sinful Woman”
   • Occurs in Galilee, about a year before the crucifixion.
   • The woman is publicly known as a sinner and anoints Jesus’ feet with perfume, weeping and wiping them with her hair
   • Her act is a public expression of repentance and devotion, and Jesus forgives her and declares her love.
   • Luke does not name her; tradition often links her to Mary Magdalene, but the text does not say so
2. Matthew 26:6–13 / Mark 14:3–9 / John 12:1–8 – Mary of Bethany
   • Occurs in Bethany, near Jerusalem, six days before the crucifixion.
   • John explicitly identifies her as the sister of Martha and Lazarus (John 11:2)
   • She anoints Jesus’ feet (or body, depending on the Gospel) with costly perfume and wipes them with her hair.
   • The text never calls her a sinner; her act is portrayed as an intimate, sacrificial act of worship

Key Differences​

• Time & Place: Luke 7 event is in Galilee; Bethany anointing is in Judaea
• Identity: Luke’s woman is unnamed; Mary of Bethany is named and linked to Martha and Lazarus.
• Nature of Act: Luke’s woman’s act is a public confession and repentance; Mary of Bethany’s act is a private, prophetic act of devotion
• Description: Luke’s woman is “a sinner” (Luke 7:37); Mary of Bethany is never described as such

Historical and Theological Note​

Early Church tradition sometimes conflated Mary of Bethany with Mary Magdalene and the sinful woman, but modern scholarship and most Christian traditions treat them as separate figures. The Gospels themselves do not identify Mary of Bethany as the repentant woman in Luke 7.

Conclusion: Mary of Bethany is not the “repentant whore” of Luke 7. She is a different woman, a devoted disciple whose anointing was an act of love and worship, not a public confession of sin

 

[Moonwood]

If he used the number 7 to describe a person's spiritual condition, he is saying their condition is Divine.

Seven can symbolize completeness in Scripture, but the meaning depends entirely on the context. In Luke 11:26, the context is not “divine” at all — it is the absolute worst possible spiritual condition. Jesus says the person ends up in a state “worse than the first.” So in Luke’s demon vocabulary, “seven spirits” is his marker for complete devastation, not divine perfection.

So when Luke says Mary had “seven demons,” he is using the same category he already defined: total spiritual ruin. Not because demons always come in sevens, and not because seven is always divine, but because Luke uses “seven spirits” as his literary way of describing the most severe possible condition.

You asked me to find where Luke explains what “seven spirits” means, and Luke 11:26 is exactly that. It’s not about numerology. It’s about severity.

All we have done here is establish that Mary of Bethany anointed Yeshua more than once.

Precisely — and notice what that actually means. John is not just saying Mary anointed Jesus more than once. John is identifying for his audience which Mary is Lazarus’s sister by pointing out that she is the one “who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped His feet with her hair.” Identification only works if the audience already knows the event being referenced.

John writes this before the Bethany anointing in John 12. So the anointing he refers to in John 11:2 must be an event already known to the audience. That is the entire purpose of the sentence.

If the only hair‑wiping anointing already known to the audience is the one in Luke 7, then that is the event John is pointing to. Otherwise, his identification marker would be meaningless.

Was Mary of Bethany the “Repentant Whore” Who Anointed Jesus?​

No — according to the biblical accounts, Mary of Bethany and the unnamed “repentant woman” in Luke 7 are distinct individuals, and Mary of Bethany is not described as a sinner or prostitute

Two Different Anointings​

1. Luke 7:36–50 – The “Sinful Woman”
   • Occurs in Galilee, about a year before the crucifixion.
   • The woman is publicly known as a sinner and anoints Jesus’ feet with perfume, weeping and wiping them with her hair
   • Her act is a public expression of repentance and devotion, and Jesus forgives her and declares her love.
   • Luke does not name her; tradition often links her to Mary Magdalene, but the text does not say so
2. Matthew 26:6–13 / Mark 14:3–9 / John 12:1–8 – Mary of Bethany
   • Occurs in Bethany, near Jerusalem, six days before the crucifixion.
   • John explicitly identifies her as the sister of Martha and Lazarus (John 11:2)
   • She anoints Jesus’ feet (or body, depending on the Gospel) with costly perfume and wipes them with her hair.
   • The text never calls her a sinner; her act is portrayed as an intimate, sacrificial act of worship

Key Differences​

• Time & Place: Luke 7 event is in Galilee; Bethany anointing is in Judaea
• Identity: Luke’s woman is unnamed; Mary of Bethany is named and linked to Martha and Lazarus.
• Nature of Act: Luke’s woman’s act is a public confession and repentance; Mary of Bethany’s act is a private, prophetic act of devotion
• Description: Luke’s woman is “a sinner” (Luke 7:37); Mary of Bethany is never described as such

Nothing you listed actually rules out the possibility that Lazarus and Martha’s sister Mary could have been the woman in Luke 7. You simply listed differences between the two accounts — but differences do not prove two different people. They only prove two different occasions.

A woman could anoint Jesus in Galilee for one reason, and then anoint Him again in Bethany a year later for a different reason. Nothing in the text forbids that.

And John 11:2 is precisely what suggests this connection:

“It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped His feet with her hair.”

John uses past tense — anointed, wiped — and he writes this before the Bethany anointing in John 12. So John is identifying her by a previous hair‑wiping event.

If the only earlier hair‑wiping event in any Gospel is Luke 7, then Luke 7 is the event John is referring to. Your list of differences does not change that. It simply shows the two anointings had different contexts and purposes — which is exactly what we would expect if the same woman did it twice.

 

[Grailhunter]

Seven can symbolize completeness in Scripture, but the meaning depends entirely on the context. In Luke 11:26, the context is not “divine” at all — it is the absolute worst possible spiritual condition. Jesus says the person ends up in a state “worse than the first.” So in Luke’s demon vocabulary, “seven spirits” is his marker for complete devastation, not divine perfection

Nope​

In the Bible, the number 7 symbolizes completion, perfection, and divine order, appearing repeatedly to convey spiritual fullness and God’s plan.​

Symbolism of Completion and Perfection​

The number 7 is closely associated with completion and perfection in biblical texts. This originates from the Creation story, where God created the world in six days and rested on the seventh, establishing the seven-day week and the Sabbath as a day of rest and worship (Genesis 1:1–2:3) The number 7 also appears in cycles of time, such as seven days marking short periods or seven years representing longer spans, like the seven years of plenty and seven years of famine in Egypt

Divine Intervention and Spiritual Significance​

Seven often signifies God’s divine intervention and spiritual completeness. Examples include:

• Jesus’ seven statements from the cross, marking the completion of His earthly mission (Luke 23:34, John 19:26–27)
• The Lord’s Prayer, which contains seven petitions, symbolizing a perfect model of prayer
• The Book of Revelation, where 7 appears frequently: seven churches, seven seals, seven trumpets, and seven bowls, representing God’s perfect plan unfolding (Revelation 1–22)

Recurring Biblical Examples​

The number 7 appears in numerous narratives and rituals:

• Noah’s Ark: seven pairs of clean animals were brought aboard
• Priestly consecration: Aaron and his sons remained in the Tabernacle for seven days during consecration
• Parables and teachings: Jesus gave seven parables in Matthew 13, and the Apostle Paul used seven titles for Christ in Hebrews
• Punishments and blessings: Cain received a sevenfold punishment, and Abraham gave seven sheep as a sign of possession

Broader Significance​

The number 7 also underpins the structure of the Bible itself. Originally, the Bible was divided into seven major sections, and the total number of books was 49 (7 x 7), reflecting the integration of seven into God’s Word This reinforces the idea that 7 represents spiritual completeness, divine order, and the fulfillment of God’s promises.
In summary, the number 7 in biblical numerology is a powerful symbol of perfection, divine intervention, and spiritual completeness, appearing throughout scripture to highlight God’s plan, sacred time, and the fulfillment of His promises.

 

[Grailhunter]

Precisely — and notice what that actually means. John is not just saying Mary anointed Jesus more than once. John is identifying for his audience which Mary is Lazarus’s sister by pointing out that she is the one “who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped His feet with her hair.” Identification only works if the audience already knows the event being referenced.

John writes this before the Bethany anointing in John 12. So the anointing he refers to in John 11:2 must be an event already known to the audience. That is the entire purpose of the sentence.

If the only hair‑wiping anointing already known to the audience is the one in Luke 7, then that is the event John is pointing to. Otherwise, his identification marker would be meaningless.

This actually brings up some debates, not to say the least, the muddle of the Marys.

Some believe that all the women that anointed Yeshua are the same person.

I have even read that some scholars think that Mary Magdaline and Mary of Bethony and the repentant sinful woman are all the same person.

But I have not met any Professors that think that Mary Magdaline and the repentant sinful woman are the same person. If it was important it would have been easy enough for Luke to write---And Mary Magdaline a sinner of the city knew that Yeshua was having dinner at a Pharisees’ house----

As a Theologian I do not care what the truth is, I just go with the scriptures. If I am going to fill in the blanks with cultural speculation, I say it is speculation on that account. If I speculate with no supporting data, I say so. Just my opinion. Everyone is entitled to an opinion as long as they admit it is an opinion.

Now on the belief that Mary Magdaline was the repentant whore in Luke 7. The scriptures do not identify Mary Magdaline as the repentant whore by name. The woman in Luke 7 is unnamed and the actual scripture reads that this sinful woman was in the city. Not that she lived in the city and knew that Yeshua was having dinner at this Pharisee house.

So the scriptures do not identify this woman as Mary Magdaline by name. And I do not see the need to drag this woman’s reputation through the gutter because of some non-specific scriptures.

What do we know about Mary Magdaline….She was part of group of women that financed Yeshua’s ministry…..The work of God. She apparently was part of a group of women that were followers of Yeshua. The Apostles knew she was important to Yeshua, so they put her at the top of the lists of Yeshua’s female followers, just as Peter tops the lists. She was at the cross with Yeshua with His mother and the other female followers of Christ. On the day that Yeshua was to resurrect, she was at the tomb. (She had more faith than the Apostles because they were not at the tomb and when He revealed Himself to them, they thought He was a ghost. The whole doubting Thomas thing. So the Apostles were hiding.) Yeshua chose to reveal Himself to Mary Magdaline first and she was overjoyed. Mary Magdaline is given the honor of proclaiming the risen Christ to the hiding apostles.

I believe that Mary Magdaline and Mary of Bethany are the same person even though scriptures do not name her as such. I believe that Lazarus and his sister Mary Magdaline and Martha were an extended family for Yeshua. That is why Martha scolded Yeshua like a brother for not being there when Lazurus was sick. Because she knew that Yeshua could have saved him. Of course He did something greater by raising Lazurus from the dead.

 

[Grailhunter]

Nothing you listed actually rules out the possibility that Lazarus and Martha’s sister Mary could have been the woman in Luke 7. You simply listed differences between the two accounts — but differences do not prove two different people. They only prove two different occasions.

A woman could anoint Jesus in Galilee for one reason, and then anoint Him again in Bethany a year later for a different reason. Nothing in the text forbids that.

And John 11:2 is precisely what suggests this connection:

Nothing in the scriptures rules out Mary Magdalene as President of the United States. But more importantly it is what the scriptures say. She is more likely she identified as the Queen of the South than a repentant whore.

 

[Grailhunter]

John uses past tense — anointed, wiped — and he writes this before the Bethany anointing in John 12. So John is identifying her by a previous hair‑wiping event.

If the only earlier hair‑wiping event in any Gospel is Luke 7, then Luke 7 is the event John is referring to. Your list of differences does not change that. It simply shows the two anointings had different contexts and purposes — which is exactly what we would expect if the same woman did it twice.

By the time John wrote this, it was all past tense.

 

[Moonwood]

Nope​

In the Bible, the number 7 symbolizes completion, perfection, and divine order, appearing repeatedly to convey spiritual fullness and God’s plan.​

Symbolism of Completion and Perfection​

The number 7 is closely associated with completion and perfection in biblical texts. This originates from the Creation story, where God created the world in six days and rested on the seventh, establishing the seven-day week and the Sabbath as a day of rest and worship (Genesis 1:1–2:3) The number 7 also appears in cycles of time, such as seven days marking short periods or seven years representing longer spans, like the seven years of plenty and seven years of famine in Egypt

Divine Intervention and Spiritual Significance​

Seven often signifies God’s divine intervention and spiritual completeness. Examples include:

• Jesus’ seven statements from the cross, marking the completion of His earthly mission (Luke 23:34, John 19:26–27)
• The Lord’s Prayer, which contains seven petitions, symbolizing a perfect model of prayer
• The Book of Revelation, where 7 appears frequently: seven churches, seven seals, seven trumpets, and seven bowls, representing God’s perfect plan unfolding (Revelation 1–22)

Recurring Biblical Examples​

The number 7 appears in numerous narratives and rituals:

• Noah’s Ark: seven pairs of clean animals were brought aboard
• Priestly consecration: Aaron and his sons remained in the Tabernacle for seven days during consecration
• Parables and teachings: Jesus gave seven parables in Matthew 13, and the Apostle Paul used seven titles for Christ in Hebrews
• Punishments and blessings: Cain received a sevenfold punishment, and Abraham gave seven sheep as a sign of possession

Broader Significance​

The number 7 also underpins the structure of the Bible itself. Originally, the Bible was divided into seven major sections, and the total number of books was 49 (7 x 7), reflecting the integration of seven into God’s Word This reinforces the idea that 7 represents spiritual completeness, divine order, and the fulfillment of God’s promises.
In summary, the number 7 in biblical numerology is a powerful symbol of perfection, divine intervention, and spiritual completeness, appearing throughout scripture to highlight God’s plan, sacred time, and the fulfillment of His promises.

All of those examples of “seven” symbolizing divine completeness are true — but they apply when the number is attached to things God ordains: days, churches, seals, blessings, petitions, covenants, cycles of time.

In Luke 11:26, the number seven is not attached to anything divine. It is attached to unclean spirits. And when “seven” is applied to evil, the symbolism reverses: it means complete devastation, not divine perfection.

Jesus Himself defines the meaning in the verse: the person’s “last state is worse than the first.” That is the opposite of divine completeness. It is total spiritual collapse.

So when Luke later says Mary had “seven demons,” he is using the same category he already defined — not divine perfection, but complete ruin. The meaning comes from the context, not from numerology.

I believe that Mary Magdaline and Mary of Bethany are the same person...

We agree that Mary Magdalene and Mary of Bethany are the same person. Bearing that in mind, look at what John actually does in John 11:2:

"Now a certain man was ill, Lazarus of Bethany, the village of Mary and her sister Martha. It was Mary who anointed the Lord with ointment and wiped his feet with her hair, whose brother Lazarus was ill. But when Jesus heard it he said, “This illness is not unto death; it is for the glory of God, so that the Son of God may be glorified by means of it."

John pauses the narrative here.
He is not describing something happening in John 11.
He is identifying which Mary he means by referring to something she had already done.

John uses past tense:

• anointed
• wiped

These are completed actions within the narrative timeline.
And this is the key point:

Narrative past tense refers to what is past in the story — not what is past in John’s life when he wrote the Gospel.
John 11 comes before John 12 in the narrative.
So when John says Mary “anointed” and “wiped,” he is referring to an event already completed before John 11 in the story.

John 12 has not happened yet in the narrative.
Therefore John 11:2 cannot be referring to the Bethany anointing in John 12.

So the question is simple and textual:

Which hair‑wiping anointing is John referring to in John 11:2? It cannot be the hair‑wiping with oil in John 12, because that event hasn’t happened yet in his narrative.

If Mary of Bethany = Mary Magdalene, John could have simply called her “Mary Magdalene.”
He didn’t.

He chose to identify her by a past event — and not just any event, but an event recorded only once elsewhere in all four Gospels, and that event appears in Luke’s narrative immediately before Luke introduces Mary Magdalene by name.

Identification only works if the audience already knows the event being referenced.
John 11:2 requires an earlier, known hair‑wiping anointing.
Luke 7 is the only such event.

 

[Grailhunter]

All of those examples of “seven” symbolizing divine completeness are true — but they apply when the number is attached to things God ordains: days, churches, seals, blessings, petitions, covenants, cycles of time.

In Luke 11:26, the number seven is not attached to anything divine. It is attached to unclean spirits. And when “seven” is applied to evil, the symbolism reverses: it means complete devastation, not divine perfection.

Jesus Himself defines the meaning in the verse: the person’s “last state is worse than the first.” That is the opposite of divine completeness. It is total spiritual collapse.

So when Luke later says Mary had “seven demons,” he is using the same category he already defined — not divine perfection, but complete ruin. The meaning comes from the context, not from numerology.

All the examples of 7's I gave are positives.
You gave one two 7's that were negative.
It like proclaiming Yeshua was a sinner when He broke the Mosaic Law for picking food out of a field on the Sabbath.