In the opening post, I quoted the only
two anointing events: Luke 7 and John 12. I also quoted John 11:2 in it as well. If you truly always believed there were actually three anointings and that John 11:2 was one of them, you would have said so in the very beginning. But, you didn't. Instead, you explicitly acknowledged the only
two anointing events —
Luke 7 and John 12 — saying “
two different reasons…
two different places…
two different groups of people…
two different conversations.”
That remained your position until I asked you to consider what John expects the reader to already know from John 11:2:
This is a reference to a past anointing that occurs narratively
before the one in John 12.
So I asked the obvious questions:
Which specific Mary performed that past hair‑wiping event?
And which Gospel event is John referring to?
After denying that John 11:2 referred to a specific anointing event and insisting it was “just another anointing by Mary of Bethany" with "no details given," you then turned John 11:2 itself into a third, distinct narrative anointing — complete with details you had previously argued the verse does not contain:
- “wasn’t a specific event,”
- was “just another anointment by Mary of Bethany,”
- had “no details given,”
- “doesn’t point anywhere, backwards or forwards,”
- “doesn’t give a timeline for when Mary had anointed Him before,”
- and “only establishes that Mary of Bethany anointed Jesus more than once.
Those statements already contradicted each other, and then you added more:
You said John 11:2:
- “occurred at Lazarus’ home in Bethany,” but also "does not give a location.”
Those statements contradict each other, and John does not mention any location for the anointing reference in that verse.
You said it:
- “occurred when Lazarus was sick/died,” but also “before Lazarus was sick.”
Those statements contradict each other, and John does not mention Lazarus being present, dead or alive, for the anointing referenced in that verse.
You said it:
- “is speaking about Mary Magdalene,” even though John only says “Mary.”
Those statements contradict each other, and John does not specify Mary Magdalene anywhere in John 11 — not in verse 2, not in the chapter, not in the Lazarus narrative.
Since I've shown John does not mention the location of the anointing, those present, nor identify which Mary she is, it cannot stand as a narrative third distinct anointing.
And now you’re contradicting yourself again:
But then you also say:
That timestamp comes from
John 12, which narratively occurs
after John 11 — not before it. So you are borrowing the timeline of John 12 to support an anointing you claim happened both
"when Lazarus was sick/died" and
"before Lazarus was sick." That is another one of your many contradictions (see post
#112).
And then you add:
But John 11:2 does
not identify Mary Magdalene, does
not give a location, does
not give a timeline, and does
not narrate an event. You are supplying details the text does not contain — and that’s why John 11:2 cannot serve as a narrative third distinct anointing.
And this brings us back to the central issue:
John 11:1: John describes Lazarus as an ill man and names his sisters to be Mary and Martha
John 11:2: John identifies
which Mary is Lazarus’s sister. And he does
not identify her by:
- “Mary of ___,”
- “Mary from ___,”
- or any location‑based label.
Instead, he identifies her by referencing a
distinctive past action:
That only works if the audience already knows the Gospel event John is referring to.
So it must've been mentioned previously and elsewhere.
So we’re still at the two questions you haven’t answered:
Which specific Mary performed that past hair‑wiping event?
And which Gospel event is John referring to?
Either you know which Gospel event he's referring to, or you're left with a position where John uses an identifier that points to nothing — which would mean he didn’t know how to specify which Mary in the Gospel Lazarus’s sister is.