Just FYI and for others who may read this. The previous poster of post #32 doesn’t know at all what he's talking about and has a bias against the necessity of baptism and God's perfectly clear words of scripture.
The subject of baptism in regards to the thief on the cross is a non issue and should not even be a point of discussion, and it's only people such as the aforementioned that interject that subject and arguement when attempting to dispute God's word as relates to baptism, out of scriptural ignorance.
As you've stated and likewise have I written about, Jesus forgave sins while he was alive during his earthly ministry such as those of the adulterous woman, and likewise, the thief on the cross. This was done while Jesus was alive under the old covenant and had nothing whatsoever to do with baptism: a non-issue.
The difference between John's baptism and the baptism of Acts 2:38, although both being immersion, John's was not done in the Lord's name, by his authority, so although it was the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins, it would have had to be continually repeated upon further sinning. At that time, one couldn't be baptized into Christ or his death as he was still alive, and the NT was not yet in force as explained by Hebrews 9. Baptism into Christ or by the authority of Jesus, is also for the remission of sins, entry into the body of Christ (the church), and fir the receipt of the gift of the Holy Ghost. Not so with John's baptism. Also, the baptism into Christ is a one time event, with future sinning requiring only repentance.
People can try all they want to try to explain away the need for baptism, but it is in vain and only demonstrates their ignorance of scripture and predetermined bias against the clear and simple word of God.
Actually, it's you who doesn't know at all what you are talking about and have a bias against salvation by grace through belief/faith in Jesus Christ alone (apart from works) for salvation. (John 1:12; 3:15,16,18; Acts 10:43; 13:39; 16:31; 26:18; Romans 3:24-28; 4:5-6; 5:1; 11:6; 1 Corinthians 1:21; Galatians 2:16; 3:26; Ephesians 2:8,9; Philippians 3:9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9; 2 Timothy 3:15; 1 John 5:13 etc..). If water baptism was absolutely necessary for salvation, then God would not make so many statements in scripture in which He promises eternal life to those who simply
believe/place faith in Jesus Christ for salvation.
To be water baptized into Christ or by the authority of Christ does not mean water baptized into the body of Christ (which is
only accomplished through Spirit baptism - 1 Corinthians 12:13) just as being baptized into Moses in 1 Corinthians 10:2 does not mean that the Israelites were water baptized into the body of Moses. Now in what "sense" would a believer be "water baptized into Christ?" In the same "sense" that the Israelites were "baptized into Moses.." (1 Corinthians 10:2) The Israelites were not literally water baptized into the body of Moses and there is little dispute that being "baptized into Moses" signified the open allegiance and public identification of the Israelites with Moses as their leader. Moses was formally recognized as the leader of the covenant people. Water baptism signifies our allegiance and public identification with Christ as our Savior, so it would only be in that sense.
Now in regard to your pet verse (Acts 2:38) which is the pet verse of Campbellites, Roman Catholics and Oneness Pentecostals, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received
the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 -
the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was BEFORE water baptism. (Acts 10:47)
In Acts 10:43 we read
..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received
the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 -
when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 -
Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved) BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as
repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So, the only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18).
*Perfect Harmony* You need to properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine.
You can try all you want to explain away numerous passages of scripture which make it clear that we are
saved by/through belief/faith "apart from additions or modifications", but it is in vain and only demonstrates your ignorance of scripture, predetermined bias against the clear and simple word of God and thorough indoctrination into Campbellism.
The truth that I shared in post #32 still stands. You can either accept the truth and choose to place your faith in Jesus Christ alone for salvation or you can continue to fight against the truth and place your faith in water baptism + other works for salvation. The choice is yours. I clearly made my choice and it's faith in Jesus Christ alone. I trust 100% in the death, burial and resurrection of Christ as the ALL-sufficient means of my salvation. (Romans 1:16; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4) All the praise and honor goes to my Lord and Savior Jesus Christ.
