The Trinity

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GodsGrace

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John 1:1
I have another train of thought for you think about. Is what you're reading into John 1 mostly church tradition? For almost 400 years, we have a read John 1 through the eyes of the Catholic Church. (reinforcing the Trinity). In the New Testament, “the Word” (Logos) happens to be of the masculine gender. Therefore, it's pronoun -"he" in our English translations - is a matter of interpretation, not translation. Did John write concerning “the word” that “he” was in the beginning with God or did he write concerning “the word” that “it” was in the beginning with God? As already stated, in the NT Greek the logos or word is masculine noun. It is okay in English to use “he” to refer back to his masculine noun if there is good contextual reason to do so. But is there good reason to make “the word” a “he” here?

I'm reading John 1 going to the N.T. with no preconceived notions.
Then a person runs into some scripture that is not so easy to understand.
What is this WORD John speaks of? And other questions.
I trust theologians to tell me what verses mean to THEM.
Then I take everything into consideration and come to my belief.

We have read John 1 through the eyes of the original church, which happens to be the CC...
not just the last 400 years. I think you're mixing the CC and Protestantism...

The WORD/LOGOS could be an it.
It became a HE when it became incarnate...Jesus.

How's this:
IN THE BEGINNING WAS THE WORD, AND THE WORD WAS WITH GOD AND THE WORD WAS GOD.
The WORD, whatever IT was, was WITH GOD. IT was in the beginning with God.
When was the beginning? Who could know? Do YOU know what was before the universe was created?
We need the word beginning to understand...
but the WORD was always with God...from the beginning.

ALL THINGS WERE MADE BY IT.
This WORD made all things.

IN IT WAS LIFE AND THE LIFE WAS THE LIGHT OF MEN.
Who is the light?
Who is the life?
Is it not JESUS?

THERE WAS THE TRUE LIGHT WHICH, COMING TO THE WORLD, ENLIGHTENS EVERY MAN.
Now we get to where the light comes to the world.
But we already had light from Genesis 1...so it must be a different type of light...no longer an IT.

Contemporary English Language:
The Word was in the world, but no one knew him, though God had made the world with his Word.


YLT
in the world he was, and the world through him was made, and the world did not know him:

Douay Rheims
He was in the world, and the world was made by him, and the world knew him not.

Tyndale 1526
He was in ye worlde and the worlde was made by him: and yet the worlde knewe him not.


You see, Pierac, the WORD that was with God from the beginning became flesh.
I won't even get into other verses like Hebrews 1:2 for instance, which states that God made everything through the Son.


It is a fact that all English translations from the Greek before the King James version of 1611 actually read this way: (notice Him and He are now “It”).

Tyndale 1534:
Joh 1:1 In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. 2 The same was in the beginnynge with God. 3 All thinges were made by it and with out it was made nothinge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was ye lyght of men

Cranmer 1539
John 1:1 IN the begynnynge was the worde and the worde was wyth God: and God was the worde. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it and without it, was made nothynge that was made. 4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was the lyght of men

Bishops 1568:
Joh 1:1 In the begynnyng was the worde, & the worde was with God: and that worde was God. 2 The same was in the begynnyng with God. 3 All thynges were made by it: and without it, was made nothyng that was made. 4 In it was lyfe, and the lyfe was the lyght of men,

Geneva 1587:
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was that Word, and that Word was with God, and that Word was God. 2 This same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by it, and without it was made nothing that was made. 4 In it was life, and that life was the light of men.

And now our modern Concordant Literal Version:


Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the word, and the word was toward God, and God was the word. " 2 This was in the beginning toward God. 3 All came into being through it, and apart from it not even one thing came into being which has come into being." 4 In it was life, and the life was the light of men."
I hope you understand my point, which I made above.
The WORD could be described as an IT when IT was with God....
But the WORD became flesh and dwelt among us.
John 1:14


The word logos appears many, many more times in this very Gospel of John. And nowhere else do the translators capitalize it or use the masculine personal pronoun "he" to agree with it !

The rest of the New Testament is the same. Logos is variously translated as "statement" (Luke 20:20), “question" (Matt 21:24), "preaching" (1 Tim 5:17), "command" (Gal 5:14), "message" (Luke 4:32), "matter" (Acts 15:6), "reason" (Acts 10:29), so there is actually no reason to make John one say that "the Word" is the person Jesus himself, unless of course the translators
are wanting to make a point to. In all cases logos is an “it.”

In the light of this background it is far better to read John's prologue to mean that in the beginning God had a plan, a dream, a grand vision for the world, a reason by which He brought all things into being. This word or plan was expressive of who he is.
Agreed.

"The Word" for John is an “it” not a "he." On one occasion, Jesus is given the name "the word of God" and this is in Revelations 19:13. This name has been given to him after his resurrection and ascension, but we will not find it before his birth. It is not until we come to verse 14 of John's
prologue that this logos becomes personal and becomes the son of God, Jesus. "And the Word became flesh." A great plan that God had in his heart from before the creation at last is fulfilled. Be very clear that it does not say that God became flesh.
But the LOGOS, the Word of God, His Mind, His reasoning power, became flesh.
Would not the logos be GOD?
If something is IN GOD and becomes FLESH...
Wouldn't that flesh have the nature of God?


TO BE CONT'D
 

GodsGrace

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........................................

"Auto means SELF....
"it could be a HIM, HER, IT"


Look it up, please:
Mastering New Testament Greek (biblicalelearning.org) See 3rd person pronouns
Lesson 6 (ntgreek.net) see 3rd person pronouns
Greek Pronouns | New Testament Greek Study

"For instance, how do you grieve an IT?"
Examining the Trinity: HS (Part 2)
Tigger, I know what AUTO means, I speak 3 1/2 languages.

I believe I stated it could be HER, HE OR IT.
It depends on the CONTEXT.

Don't need to look it up and am not planning on learning another language.
 

Wrangler

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Except you omit the absolute essential ingredient to this seeming conundrum. Jesus is God's Son.

Completely, totally, 100% irrelevant to the point of language usage and agency. Whose will be done:
A. God, our Father in heaven.
B. The man Jesus on Earth?

The answer is not the Son, as we are all God’s sons and daughters. Being a child of God does not make us God.
 

Wrangler

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Not created as are the angels.

Of course Jesus was created. John 3:16 is explicit that Jesus was created!

And here is another abuse of language; parsing synonyms. Begotten means created; a person means a being, e.g., human being or Supreme Being.
 

Wrangler

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So if the Father didn't beget a Son like unto Himself, then what?

This is another laughable logical fallacy invoked by trinitarians, False Alternative. You ask a question AS IF the only possibility is your doctrine.

Nothing could be further from the truth than there are multiple God’s. Your question is profoundly anti-Scriptural! Scripture explicitly tells us there is only one God, the Father. Therefore, the valid answer to your question must necessarily involve this truth.

Acts 17:31 explicitly tells us that God, in his unitarian nature, selected the man Jesus. That’s what; Jesus is adopted and selected by God - just like us, his other children.

Regarding Jesus being the only begotten son of God, that is true of all first born children - until other children come around.
 

GodsGrace

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This is another laughable logical fallacy invoked by trinitarians, False Alternative. You ask a question AS IF the only possibility is your doctrine.

Nothing could be further from the truth than there are multiple God’s. Your question is profoundly anti-Scriptural! Scripture explicitly tells us there is only one God, the Father. Therefore, the valid answer to your question must necessarily involve this truth.

Acts 17:31 explicitly tells us that God, in his unitarian nature, selected the man Jesus. That’s what; Jesus is adopted and selected by God - just like us, his other children.

Regarding Jesus being the only begotten son of God, that is true of all first born children - until other children come around.
Jesus is selected by God like we are?
We're selected?
AND we're like Jesus?
 

Pierac

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Except you omit the absolute essential ingredient to this seeming conundrum. Jesus is God's Son. God sent His Son into the world. His only begotten Son. His only begotten Son. Not created as are the angels. Not redeemed as are people. Begotten. Brought forth of the Father before creation, the express image of His person. And throughout creation, from beginning to end, like begets like. So if the Father didn't beget a Son like unto Himself, then what?

Your suggesting that begotten is somehow different than created… We know Jesus was begotten. That means he did not always exist. God the Father has no beginning. We know why Jesus is call the Son of God too! Because just Like Adam whom is also called the son of God was created by the Holy spirit, not of fallen Man. Luk 3:38 the son of Enosh, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God.

Here is the angel telling you so… NASB Luk 1:35 The angel answered and said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; and for that reason the holy Child shall be called the Son of God.

1Co 15:45 So also it is written, "The first MAN, Adam, BECAME A LIVING SOUL." The last Adam (Jesus) became a life-giving spirit. Adam was never anointed with God’s Spirit

Note that the Book of Mark starts at Jesus' baptism… Why?

My guess and it’s only a guess is because Jesus was filled with the Holy Spirit at that time. Jesus received the Spirit of the Father. It was at Jesus baptism that God imparted His power into Him. Thus why Jesus never performed a single miracle until after his baptism.

We know it was the Spirit of the Father that descending upon Him by looking at parallel verses concerning the Holy Spirit from Jesus Himself.

one Matthew and one in Luke.
Luk 12:11 And when they bring you before the synagogues and the rulers and the authorities, do not be anxious about how you should defend yourself or what you should say, 12 for the Holy Spirit will teach you in that very hour what you ought to say."

Mat 10:19 When they deliver you over, do not be anxious how you are to speak or what you are to say, for what you are to say will be given to you in that hour. 20 For it is not you who speak, but the Spirit of your Father speaking through you.

When you connect to Matthew 10:20 with Luke 12:12 you get an understanding of what the Holy Spirit is. It is the Spirit of the Father. There is no separate being called the Holy Spirit. That's why the Holy Spirit is never worshiped, prayed to, or has a seat on a throne.

We also know from scripture that the risen Jesus… the Son of God is a man… Not fully God and fully Man like people want to say… In fact there is a Greek word for that term never found in scripture… Theos aner. It means fully God and fully Man and you will search in vain to find it in scripture!

In fact Paul tells you the risen Christ (Son of God) is a Man name Jesus

1Ti 2:5 For there is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus
 

Pierac

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You see, Pierac, the WORD that was with God from the beginning became flesh.
I won't even get into other verses like Hebrews 1:2 for instance, which states that God made everything through the Son.

The Beginning of What...? Because God has no Beginning... Yet, the Logos was with God from the beginning... But God has no beginning.... drives you crazy thinking about it...LOL

1Jn 1:1 What was from the beginning, what we have heard, what we have seen with our eyes, what we have looked at and touched with our hands, concerning the Word of Life-- 2 and the life was manifested, and we have seen and testify and proclaim to you the eternal life, which was with the Father and was manifested to us--

What does scripture teach you about... What was from the beginning?

Pay attention as we need to get a little deeper comparing both John 1:1 with 1 John 1:1

John 1:1 - "In the beginning was the Word." 1 John 1:1"What was from the beginning, what we have heard."

Notice that in John what is from the beginning is the word, and in 1 John what is from the beginning is something that they heard (a message) .

Look closely...

1 John 2:7 - "Beloved, I am writing no new commandment to you but an old commandment that you had from the beginning. The old commandment is the word that you have heard."

In 1 John 1:1 what was from the beginning is something that they heard, here in 1 John 2:7 the old commandment is what they have had from the beginning, (sound familiar?) and the old commandment is the "WORD" that they what? Heard! The same as in 1 John 1:1.

So, What commandment is John speaking about?

John is speaking about what Jesus called the greatest commandment, ( Mark 12:29-30 ) the commandment of love which God gave the Hebrews from the beginning. The message of love that the proclamation of the Kingdom of God brings with it.

How do we know for sure that this is the message and/or the commandment that they heard from the beginning? Because John tells you so in 1 John 3:11 and 1 John 3:23:

"For this is the message you have HEARD from the BEGINNING: we should love one another."

"And his commandment is this: we should believe in the name of his Son Jesus Christ, and love one another."

Loving one another is how the world will know that we are followers of God’s Christ.

John 13:30"This is how all will know that you are my disciples, if you have love for one another."

According to Paul (Romans 13:9), the law of love is the fulfillment of the Mosaic Law and it is the Law in the coming Kingdom of God which the Messiah has come to proclaim. These are Jesus’ own words.

John is talking about the message or Logos (known by you as “word”!)

By making John 1 a Trinity support verse, you lose so much truth!

I will review how the Word becomes flesh again...
So how does the Word (logos) become flesh in John 1:14? Let me use an example which most of us can relate to. We are all familiar with the expression, "was this baby planned?" Let's say it was planned. You and your wife had a plan to have a baby. You had a logos, a plan. Your plan (logos) became flesh the day that your baby was born. In the same way, God's plan of salvation for us became a reality, became flesh, when Jesus was born.
 

tigger 2

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Tigger, I know what AUTO means, I speak 3 1/2 languages.

I believe I stated it could be HER, HE OR IT.
It depends on the CONTEXT.

Don't need to look it up and am not planning on learning another language.
............................................

The age-old problem. Don't need to examine anything - - I already know it all. What a shame.

IF you would even take the massive effort of clicking on my links for the pronouns in NT GREEK, you would find that auto means (not 'self' as in Latin) but "it" or "itself" - 3rd person neuter. The masculine form autos is 3rd person masculine, and the 3rd person feminine is αὐτ !

Elementary New Testament Greek (asburyseminary.edu) 3rd person singular neuter
 
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Brakelite

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This is another laughable logical fallacy invoked by trinitarians, False Alternative. You ask a question AS IF the only possibility is your doctrine.

Nothing could be further from the truth than there are multiple God’s. Your question is profoundly anti-Scriptural! Scripture explicitly tells us there is only one God, the Father. Therefore, the valid answer to your question must necessarily involve this truth.

Acts 17:31 explicitly tells us that God, in his unitarian nature, selected the man Jesus. That’s what; Jesus is adopted and selected by God - just like us, his other children.

Regarding Jesus being the only begotten son of God, that is true of all first born children - until other children come around.
Why would you assume I'm a trinitarian simply because I believe scripture that says "God sent His Only begotten Son into the world..."?
 

GodsGrace

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HOW is a different question that WHAT, we are God’s elect. I’m surprised you did not know that. On what basis do you believe we are saved - as opposed to people who are not?
Could you just tell me?