Titus 3:7 says that by being justified by his grace we might become heirs according to the hope of eternal life. Has the Bible laid the groundwork for a topic of debate, the topic being what importance is works relative to faith in obtaining God’s Grace? On the one hand, Jesus in Matthew 7:21 says “Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven.” Does that not imply that works are involved to obtain God’s Grace enough to gain admittance into His Kingdom?
On the other hand, there is Ephesians 2:8-9 that says, “For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast.” Sort of leaves work out in the cold, n’est ce pas?
Going further back, in OT times, within Genesis 15:1–6, God says to Abram, TBKA Abraham, that he will be the father of a vast number of offspring. He tops it off by informing Abraham that he will have a son. Verse 6 says that Abraham believes in the Lord, implying he has faith in the Lord, who counts that to Abraham as righteousness. This is confirmed by Romans 4:3.
Romans 4:5 goes on to say, “And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness…” (Commentators say that use of the word “ungodly” in this context means we are all ungodly until God justifies us individually to be godly.) Does that mean you don’t have to work, that you only need to express your faith in God to obtain His Grace? But that seems to run counter to Matthew 7:21 which says you need to do God’s Will to enter His Kingdom. How do you enter God’s Kingdom except by His Grace?
What does God’s Will entail? What stands out are the two great commandments of Jesus: To love God with all your heart, soul and mind, and to love your neighbor as you love yourself. But as Jesus implies in Matthew 7:21, it takes more to show your love for God than to just say ‘I love you, Lord.’
How did Abraham get by with just believing in God, effectively putting him in the “Lord, Lord” category? Perhaps God had a divine expectation of Abraham showing his faith in Him by means of the stature God has given him in Genesis 15:1–6. God expects great things from Abraham, and one can presume that establishing a nation is no simple feat.
For the rest of us, seems we are stuck with some earthly rationalization between faith, work and God’s Grace. God looks at us in terms of our faith in Him, Yet James 2: 17 says “So also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead.” To the idea of God counting as righteousness the belief that merely believing in God can be counted as righteousness, Verse 21 says “Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up his son Isaac on the altar?”
Perhaps the idea of righteousness and the idea of faith in the Lord are two different things. Perhaps righteousness is relegated to works, having the same stature. Righteousness can be expressed in other ways, not just in terms of righteousness under God. Righteousness can be applied to earthly morals and laws. Perhaps Jesus’ idea of doing the will of our father is different than works. Perhaps works, like earthly morals and laws, apply to earthliness as well.
But if we accept that, where does that leave James 2:17? And where does that leave God’s Grace? To add to the debate, Titus 3:7 implies that we may not have a lock on eternal life if we are merely justified by God’s Grace. So what else is needed to gain further assurance of our having eternal life? Why doesn’t Titus 3:7 say that we WILL become heirs according to the hope of eternal life if we are justified by God’s Grace? Maybe there's an issue regarding the translation from the language it was originally written?
On the other hand, there is Ephesians 2:8-9 that says, “For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast.” Sort of leaves work out in the cold, n’est ce pas?
Going further back, in OT times, within Genesis 15:1–6, God says to Abram, TBKA Abraham, that he will be the father of a vast number of offspring. He tops it off by informing Abraham that he will have a son. Verse 6 says that Abraham believes in the Lord, implying he has faith in the Lord, who counts that to Abraham as righteousness. This is confirmed by Romans 4:3.
Romans 4:5 goes on to say, “And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness…” (Commentators say that use of the word “ungodly” in this context means we are all ungodly until God justifies us individually to be godly.) Does that mean you don’t have to work, that you only need to express your faith in God to obtain His Grace? But that seems to run counter to Matthew 7:21 which says you need to do God’s Will to enter His Kingdom. How do you enter God’s Kingdom except by His Grace?
What does God’s Will entail? What stands out are the two great commandments of Jesus: To love God with all your heart, soul and mind, and to love your neighbor as you love yourself. But as Jesus implies in Matthew 7:21, it takes more to show your love for God than to just say ‘I love you, Lord.’
How did Abraham get by with just believing in God, effectively putting him in the “Lord, Lord” category? Perhaps God had a divine expectation of Abraham showing his faith in Him by means of the stature God has given him in Genesis 15:1–6. God expects great things from Abraham, and one can presume that establishing a nation is no simple feat.
For the rest of us, seems we are stuck with some earthly rationalization between faith, work and God’s Grace. God looks at us in terms of our faith in Him, Yet James 2: 17 says “So also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead.” To the idea of God counting as righteousness the belief that merely believing in God can be counted as righteousness, Verse 21 says “Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up his son Isaac on the altar?”
Perhaps the idea of righteousness and the idea of faith in the Lord are two different things. Perhaps righteousness is relegated to works, having the same stature. Righteousness can be expressed in other ways, not just in terms of righteousness under God. Righteousness can be applied to earthly morals and laws. Perhaps Jesus’ idea of doing the will of our father is different than works. Perhaps works, like earthly morals and laws, apply to earthliness as well.
But if we accept that, where does that leave James 2:17? And where does that leave God’s Grace? To add to the debate, Titus 3:7 implies that we may not have a lock on eternal life if we are merely justified by God’s Grace. So what else is needed to gain further assurance of our having eternal life? Why doesn’t Titus 3:7 say that we WILL become heirs according to the hope of eternal life if we are justified by God’s Grace? Maybe there's an issue regarding the translation from the language it was originally written?
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