OzSpen
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- Mar 30, 2015
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Not being hypocritical. You have yet to actually answer any of my questions, simply answering them with more questions and jabs rather than actually addressing the questions. Let's take a look at what the Scriptures teach, and step away from personal presuppositions and college degrees.
1.) We know that Salvation cannot be Unlimited because the Scriptures speak of a specific people of God
~ Deuteronomy 10:14-15
~ Psalms 33:12
~ Psalms 65:4
~ Psalms 106:5
~ Matthew 11:27
~ Matthew 22:14
~ Matthew 24:22
~ Matthew 24:24
~ Matthew 24: 31
~ Luke 18:7
~ Romans 8:28-30
~ Romans 8:33
~ Romans 11:28
~ Colossians 3:12
~ Titus 1:1
~ 1 Peter 2:8-9
- This election preceded Salvation
~ Romans 11:7
~ 2 Timothy 2:10
~ Acts 13:48
~ 1 Thessalonians 1:4
~ 2 Thessalonians 2:13-14
~ Ephesians 1:4
Jesus came to actually save sinners, not to make them savable. He did not merely throw out his blood for all to latch onto; He made his blood effective for those whom He chose by the power of His spirit.
~ Matthew 1:21
~ Luke 19:10
~ 2 Corinthians 5:21
~ Galatians 1:3-4
~ 1 Timothy 1:15
~ Titus 2:14
~ 1 Peter 3:18
Notice how none of these verses mentions Christ's blood being unlimited, but rather saying that it accomplishes its goals. It does not give the choice to man, but rather gives all the power to Christ, who claims that He saves sinners.
The result of Christ's blood is expressed to be reconciliation and justification.
~ Romans 5:10
~ 2 Corinthians 5:18-19
~ Ephesians 2:15-16
~ Colossians 1:21-22
~ Romans 3:24-25
~ Romans 5:8-9
~ 1 Corinthians 1:30
~ Hebrews 9:12
~ 1 Peter 2:24
How can everyone then be covered by Christ's blood? If the result of the application of His blood is reconciliation and justification, if this blood covers all then all are reconciled to Him, and therefore all are saved.
Another result of Christ's blood is the regeneration and sanctification.
~ Ephesians 1:3-4
~ Philippians 1:29
~ Acts 5:31
~ Titus 2:14
~ Titus 3:5-6
~ Ephesians 5:25-26
~ 1 Corinthians 1:30
~ Hebrews 9:14
~ Hebrews 13:12
~ 1 John 1:7
Again, if the result of the application of His blood is always regeneration and sanctification, how could He have died for all men? This would mean that all men are regenerated and sanctified, which we know is not true!
Christ Himself speaks of His people in finite terms; and He speaks of His work as effective for His people and them alone.
~ John 6:35-40
~ John 10:11-18
~ John 10:24-29
Jesus, in His high priestly prayer, does not pray for the entire world, but for those whom the Father has given to Him.
~ John 17:1-11
~ John 17:20
~ John 17: 24-26
How Jesus died for "All", and yet for a particular people.
Some passages speak of Christ dying for "all" men and of His death as saving the "world", yet others speak of His death as being definite in design and of His dying for a particular people and securing salvation for them.
1.) There are 2 classes of texts that speak of Christ's saving work in general terms:
a.) Those containing the word "world"
~ John 1:9
~ John 1:29
~ John 3:16-17
~ John 4:42
~ 2 Corinthians 5:19
~ 1 John 2:1-2
b.) Those containing the word "all"
~ Romans 5:18
~ 2 Corinthians 5:14-15
~ 1 Timothy 2:4-6
~ Hebrews 2:9
~ 2 Peter 3:9
One of the reasons for the use of these expressions was to correct the false notion that salvation was for the Jews only. Such phrases as "the world", "all men", "all nations", and "every creature" were used by the New Testament writers to emphatically correct this mistake. These expressions are intended to show that Christ died for all men with out distinction, but they are not intended to indicate that Christ died for all men without exception.
There are many passages that speak of Christ's work in definite terms:
~ Matthew 1:21
~ Matthew 20:28
~ Matthew 26:28
~ John 10:11
~ John 11:50-53
~ Acts 20:28
~ Ephesians 5:25-27
~ Romans 8:32-34
~ Hebrews 2:17
~ Hebrews 3:1
~ Hebrews 9:15
~ Hebrews 9:28
We are left with 4 options regarding Christ's death:
1.) Christ died for all sins of all men.
2.) Some sins of some men
3.) Some sins of all men.
4.) All sins of some men
- If 1 is correct, then what about the sin of unbelief? He died for ALL sins, so this would include the sin of unbelief, therefore all men would be saved.
- If 2 or 3 is correct, then there are still some sins that are not covered, which means that no one is saved.
- If 4 is correct, then we see the exact same thing that the Scriptures teach: That Christ died for His people, and that not everyone is of His people.
The word hypocrite is a very strong word, so while were throwing them around, how about heretic? Because believing that man's salvation is in his own hands is a heresy that goes back to a serpent in the garden of Eden.
Mjh,
I agree with you on one point: There are specific people of God. They were under the Old Covenant and since the cross & resurrection, they are under the requirements of the New Testament.
It's no good giving me a string of verses from OT and NT that encourage the theology you try to promote. I didn't see Matt 23:37; John 12:32; Titus 2:11; and 1 John 2:2. These verses lead to the shipwreck of your Calvinistic ship.
You ask:
How can everyone then be covered by Christ's blood? If the result of the application of His blood is reconciliation and justification, if this blood covers all then all are reconciled to Him, and therefore all are saved.
That's your presuppositional error. The truth is that 'the grace of God has appeared that offers salvation to all people' (Titus 2:11 NIV).
Oz