No, I don't think that follows. It proves that God takes responsibility for the evil in the world -- even the sin of Satan.
Did God merely foresee what Satan would do, or did God create Satan to do what he does?
Did God foresee what Satan would do, or did God cause all the choices Satan made?
While, given your theological perspective, one can understand the story that way. The text of Job does not rule out my theological perspective.
I am going to believe what God actually revealed to us for us to understand. This is more than a story, but is an historical event that occurred.
My point earlier is self-evident and doesn't rely on Calvinism. If a man allows another man to do wrong, that man is just as culpable for the evil as the second man. Look at the account of Job again.
Do you believe God allows another man to do wrong? If so, does God foresee what man will do, or did God create mankind to think and act as God had planned for each person?
However, if you believe God allows a man, or demons, to do wrong, is God just as culpable as any man, and even Satan, for the sins they commit?
Perhaps this is true of Calvinism I don't know. I don't think Calvin believed in "fore-causation" as you describe it. The concept of "fore-causation" places God on our level of existence. I don't know if Calvin believed that God was just another creature like us or not. I would give him the benefit of the doubt though.
The Calvinists interpret, "foreknow" as used in Scripture, to mean that God "fore-causes" in contrast to God acting on what God foresees what will happen.
For instance, did God foresee that Judas Iscariot would betray Jesus, or that God created Judas for that purpose?
For instance, did God prophecy about Jacob and Esau before they were born because God foresaw it, or because God created them to act and do just as he prophesied?
The Bible doesn't teach the concept of "fore-causation", it teaches the concept of "fore-ordination."
We all agree that "fore-ordained," according to His purposes, to save those who believe, and to condemn those who do not believe; and God also "fore-ordained" events that would bring His purposes to fruition. However, one cannot presume that because God does fore-ordain events that this means that God formed every creature to think and act just as they do.
I agree that Calvinists do interpret "fore-ordained" to mean that God fore-causes all that we think, act, and do, to fulfill his plans in contrast to God foreseeing all things and then acting upon creation to make that which God ordained regarding God's plan of salvation to occur.
Your conclusion doesn't follow logically from the facts. Joseph is not suggesting that God simply "fixed" a problem that he knew would arise. Rather, Joseph is saying that God actually orchestrated the problem in the first place.
Did Joseph really understand that God orchestrated the problem in the first place? Can you show me the Scriptures that teach this?
I do not disagree that God can orchestrate what God ordains should take place to fulfill His plan of salvation, but do you think that God orchestrating events means that God creates all people think and do only that which God planned for each of them, including all the evil things they do, and all the good things they do, or that God foresaw, and orchestrated events to work according to what God foresaw?
In fact, the Lord was the divine agent behind Joseph's entire story, which was just a mini-plot in a much larger story that God had orchestrated. This larger story was designed to teach Joseph's brothers some important lessons that would serve them well in their role as the patriarchs of Israel.
While lessons were learned, God's major purpose regarding Joseph and the famine was to preserve the Israelite people from which the Messiah would be born.
Who do you think caused the famine in the first place?
I will not presume to think; rather, the Scriptures do not say God caused the famine; rather, God prophesied to Pharoah, and interpreted by Joseph, that a famine would occur. God provided for the lineage of Israel to survive, so that the Messiah could be born.
Of course I am ignoring what God said to Jeremiah. It doesn't follow that a metaphor must make the exact same point each time it appears. In the book of Jeremiah, the Lord employs a potter metaphor to make one point, while Paul, in his letter to the Romans, also uses a potter metaphor to make an entirely different point. If I want to understand Paul's point, I would do well to avoid placing Jeremiah over Paul as an overlay. Understand Paul from within the context of his argument.
Paul, in Romans 9, only states that God has the right to form a person or nation (Israel) as he sees fit, while in "Jeremiah 18" God himself explains HOW and for what reason He forms each of us.
God has the right to form some for punishment and destruction, and others for blessing, and God said this is all based on whether we repent or not. That is what God is teaching us by His own words.
This shows that God gives all people free will to choose, and each person is responsible for his own choices. God is reasoning with the Jews saying that, 'if you repent, I will relent the punishment he intended on you (to form the unrepentant for punishment). To those who repent, God forms into vessels of noble purpose.
Perhaps you didn't catch my meaning earlier when I said that "God creates them repenting." In my view, "creation" and "causation" are two different things, especially as it pertains to God's creative action.
What do you mean when you say, "God creates them repenting?"
If you say God does not fore-cause us to make the choices we do, then did not merely foresee what we would do and act accordingly? Which is it - foresaw or fore-cause?
"Please remember what John said, 'All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him, nothing came into being that has come into being.' This means that nothing falls outside the circle of 'all things.' This includes my sin, my repentance, and my redemption. Everything comes into being through Him."
You are extrapolating your own doctrine as to what you feel "John 1:3" is stating. God could just as well have created mankind in His own image, able to make choices by their own free will.
Since you say that God created all things includes "my sin, my repentance, and my redemption. Everything comes into being through Him," are you then saying that God fore-causes all things that he created, including your sin, and everything else? Why or why not?
Moreover, God doesn't cause or "fore-cause" anything. He speaks things into existence as it is written, "Then God said, “Let there be light”; and there was light." Everything that comes into being is spoken into existence by the creator.
If "Everything that comes into being is spoken into existence by the creator," then God cause all things to exist. Who caused all things to exist?
I believe you mean to express your thankfulness that God is not a person who "fore-causes" evil.
Do you believe God, being creator, just foresaw what would take place, or that God created each person, according to His plan, to think and to make choices that God already pre-determined for them when he created them?
Since you say that the enabler is just as guilty as the one who commits the sins they were enabled by to do, is God guilty for all the horrendous sins that have occurred since the creation of the world? Why or why not?
God is not a passive observer of events that have already happened. Rather, he actively creates everything that happens in our reality in real-time. He is like a scriptwriter who not only creates people, but also their environment, time, location, and circumstances. He determines how they react to these circumstances and what motivates their actions. Therefore, God is responsible for every aspect of our reality.
That is the definition of "fore-cause," wouldn't you agree? If God is the originator, creating everything that happens, then He fore-caused, wouldn't you agree?
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