There is a lot of confusion that surfaces from time-to-time regarding the meaning and implications of Matt 5:27-28, which is predicated upon a lack of careful reading and understanding of what was actually said and the specific words used therein and their relative meaning.
First of all, you must understand the context and to whom this was said. These two verses were part of Jesus' teaching to his disciples on a variety of topics, commonly referred to as "the sermon on the mount".
And, the verses origins are derived from OT scripture Leviticus 18.
Matthew 5:27-28
"27Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery: 28But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart."
Lev 18:20
"20Moreover thou shalt not lie carnally with thy neighbor’s wife, to defile thyself with her."
First of all, if you look closely at the wording in the Matthew verses, you find the word "adultery" which is the primary word of people's concern. So what exactly is "adultery"? And once understanding what adultery is, who then would be guilty of "adultery" predicated upon the text of these verses?
Now look at the verse in Leviticus which says lying "carnally with thy neighbor’s wife". This means having intercourse with a married woman, which is defined as adultery.
So, Matthew 5:27-28 means exactly that, and does not refer to unmarried women. Adultery is commonly defined as a married person having sexual intercourse with someone other than their spouse.
If it was meant to relate to unmarried women, the word "adultery" would not have been used, but rather the word 'fornication' would most likely have been. So, read the subject Matt 5 verses substituting the word 'fornication' for "adultery" to see/understand the perspective.
Now consider the phrase in verse 28, "to lust after". The word "lust" means having a strong sexual desire for. The word "after" in this instance of usage, is an adverb with one of its meanings being “in pursuit".
So, what is the meaning and intent of this phrase “to lust after”?
Lusting after a person, equating to having sexual intercourse with them (adultery) in your heart prior to actually engaging in the act, would have to involve, as aforementioned, a already married person, not unmarried, and one who pursues the intended illicit relationship with the already married person, vigorously.
As you should now be able to understand, much of the concerns that many people have may very well be unfounded since ‘adultery’ relates to one or both of the parties who are engaging in, or may be about to engage in sexual activity, being married, and being so done with someone other than their spouse, and the one in pursuit having a strong sexual desire for the other party. Adultery can only occur between persons, with either one or both who are or were already married, who engage in sexual intercourse with other than their spouse. If neither one is married or was married previously, then it’s not considered ‘adultery’, but rather would be fornication, if consummated.
First of all, you must understand the context and to whom this was said. These two verses were part of Jesus' teaching to his disciples on a variety of topics, commonly referred to as "the sermon on the mount".
And, the verses origins are derived from OT scripture Leviticus 18.
Matthew 5:27-28
"27Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery: 28But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart."
Lev 18:20
"20Moreover thou shalt not lie carnally with thy neighbor’s wife, to defile thyself with her."
First of all, if you look closely at the wording in the Matthew verses, you find the word "adultery" which is the primary word of people's concern. So what exactly is "adultery"? And once understanding what adultery is, who then would be guilty of "adultery" predicated upon the text of these verses?
Now look at the verse in Leviticus which says lying "carnally with thy neighbor’s wife". This means having intercourse with a married woman, which is defined as adultery.
So, Matthew 5:27-28 means exactly that, and does not refer to unmarried women. Adultery is commonly defined as a married person having sexual intercourse with someone other than their spouse.
If it was meant to relate to unmarried women, the word "adultery" would not have been used, but rather the word 'fornication' would most likely have been. So, read the subject Matt 5 verses substituting the word 'fornication' for "adultery" to see/understand the perspective.
Now consider the phrase in verse 28, "to lust after". The word "lust" means having a strong sexual desire for. The word "after" in this instance of usage, is an adverb with one of its meanings being “in pursuit".
So, what is the meaning and intent of this phrase “to lust after”?
Lusting after a person, equating to having sexual intercourse with them (adultery) in your heart prior to actually engaging in the act, would have to involve, as aforementioned, a already married person, not unmarried, and one who pursues the intended illicit relationship with the already married person, vigorously.
As you should now be able to understand, much of the concerns that many people have may very well be unfounded since ‘adultery’ relates to one or both of the parties who are engaging in, or may be about to engage in sexual activity, being married, and being so done with someone other than their spouse, and the one in pursuit having a strong sexual desire for the other party. Adultery can only occur between persons, with either one or both who are or were already married, who engage in sexual intercourse with other than their spouse. If neither one is married or was married previously, then it’s not considered ‘adultery’, but rather would be fornication, if consummated.