I don't quite understand your question mate, so all I can do is post Matthew 4:10 again in multiple bible versions where Jesus never uses the words Yahveh or Jehovah..
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Jesus stated as all your versions show, It was written. So what was Jesus quoting to satan that was previously written? Many versions, perhaps some of those who you quoted have a cross reference feature Drop, you may be familiar with this. So all one has to do is find what verse Jesus was quoting and then see what was originally said. Jesus was quoting Deut 6:13 to satan, which states: Jehovah your God you should fear, and him you should serve, and by his name you should swear.
Granted this was quoted from a modern day version as was all your quotes, but today we have tools to understand what was really written there. With a little research you will find that YHWH was originally in that verse, so my question was relevant sir, do you think Jesus would quote God's word differently than it was written, especially something that was so critical? Perhaps you would agree he wouldn't. So it was not Jesus who altered what was actually written, but the translators of those versions who chose to. Why do you suppose that was sir?