What is meant by "rightly dividing the word of truth?"

[DNB]

Where I do concur with and appreciate most of your comment, perhaps this is a good place to address the biblical precedence of quoting scripture:

Unlike many of the would be scholastic manifestos that are presented to make the case of this or that interpretation of the scriptures, and those that go on and on with mounds of would be confirmations...none of that approach can be found in the bible. On the contrary, even Jesus would be hard pressed to establish correct context for the brief snippets of scripture that He often quoted. As such, the actual precedence that the bible/scripture has to offer...is simply who quoted it, and what they declare it pertains to as confirmation of any kind. This of course is consistent with God's own declaration to confound the wise.

Well yes, i would agree, which was one of my points, i.e. let a qualified interpreter correlate passages. As, like you said 'who quoted it' counts a great deal (truly inspired). Otherwise, it becomes too convenient and arbitrary to justify a doctrine based on unrelated verses.

 

[charity]

2 Timothy 2:15
"Be diligent to present yourself approved to God, a worker who does not need to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth."

I might just come right out and say what is meant, but perhaps we could hear what others say.

What say you?

Impressive - thank you!

But rather than address my objections, of which there are some, I will just state what ought to be obvious:

In order to be "rightly divided", the word of truth must certainly be divisible by some means. In other words, there is something about it that can be divided, and should be.

God's word itself offers many examples, most in twos, some in thirds, some sevens, as well as others. But then again, Paul does not say to rightly separate the word, as if there were multiple parts, but rather speaking in simpler terms he just says "divide." He might have elaborated, but didn't. Which would make the best right answer, to "rightly divide" in two. Such as: light and darkness, day and night, good and evil, wheat and tares, sheep and goats, Jews and Greeks, male and female, bond servant and free, old and new, flesh and spirit, God and man, heaven and earth, heaven and hell, etc.. Take any two of those and with two different colored highlighters, go through all the scriptures marking the words and passages that pertain to each...and I would venture to say, much would be revealed. But I recommend flesh and spirit, and God and man.

The result of such and exercise would render a clear(er) distinction of what in scripture pertains to living in the world and our time under the sun, as opposed to those things which are not of this world, but of the kingdom, and of God. One would follow a timeline, and the other not.

And then in our reading..."seek first the kingdom of God and His righteousness." Let there be a clear distinction.

'Study to shew thyself approved unto God,
a workman that needeth not to be ashamed,
rightly dividing the word of truth.'
(2 Timothy 2:15)

Hello there, @ScottA,

I love this verse. Within the context that it comes it elevates Timothy up out of the strife of tongues surrounding him (2 Timothy 2:14), and places Him on the solid ground of the Word of Truth. Around him was questioning and faith endangering disputation (2 Timothy 2:16), which he needed to avoid. That could only be achieved by concentrating on showing himself to be approved unto God, a workman that needed not to be ashamed, as one who rightly divided the Word of Truth. Praise God!

Rightly dividing is a vital principle of interpretation, which is illustrated in the writing of Paul to Timothy in this epistle. Paul urges Timothy not to be ashamed of, '... the testimony of the Lord and of me His prisoner ...'(2 Timothy 1:8). He refers to that calling that goes back, ' ... before the world began ...' (or, 'before age times' - 2 Timothy 1:9), but was manifested to him during his imprisonment. He draws attention to his own special ministry, and the good deposit of truth, which Paul had committed unto God (2 Timothy 1:12; 1 Timothy 1:14) it having been Divinely entrusted to Him, and which he had communicated to Timothy (1 Timothy 6:20 & 2 Timothy 1:14) as a ' ... form of sound words ... ' (2 Timothy 1:13) which Timothy was to, '... commit to faithful men ...' (2 Timothy 2:2). This was rightly dividing. This was the object of Timothy's ministry, this was the Truth which He was to administer to those entrusted to him in his turn.

Others may strive about words to no profit, but he was to shun such profane and vain babblings, and hold fast the form of sound words which he had heard of Paul: the deposit of Truth revealed to Paul as the Lord's Prisoner, which had been hidden in God since before the world began, and which had been committed to Timothy, by Paul, as a precious trust.

* All Scripture is for us, but not all is 'about' us, this is what right division identifies.

In Christ Jesus
Chris

 

[charity]

'Study to shew thyself approved unto God,
a workman that needeth not to be ashamed,
rightly dividing the word of truth.'
(2 Timothy 2:15)

'Trust in the LORD with all thine heart;
and lean not unto thine own understanding.
In all thy ways acknowledge Him,
and He shall direct thy paths.'
(Proverbs 3:5)

 

[Willie T]

'Study to shew thyself approved unto God,
a workman that needeth not to be ashamed,
rightly dividing the word of truth.'
(2 Timothy 2:15)

'Trust in the LORD with all thine heart;
and lean not unto thine own understanding.
In all thy ways acknowledge Him,
and He shall direct thy paths.'
(Proverbs 3:5)

The post quoted is exactly why I pointed out that the old term translated here was never meant to be mathematical terminology... as we in our modern-day evaluation try to force it to be.

 

[ScottA]

The post quoted is exactly why I pointed out that the old term translated here was never meant to be mathematical terminology... as we in our modern-day evaluation try to force it to be.

For the OP passage (2 Timothy 2:15) I agree.

So, I suppose that the reason in my mind for this discussion, is that it points to the dividing nature of God with regarding the things of heaven and earth...i.e. light and darkness, good and evil, etc..

 

[Waiting on him]

Everyone here I’m assuming realize that when this letter was written the Septuagint was all they had to reference,
And somehow they were all very familiar with the word of God.

 

[stunnedbygrace]

I think...it has to do with...some of it applying to righteousness and some to holiness and knowing which.

 

[Enoch111]

Everyone here I’m assuming realize that when this letter was written the Septuagint was all they had to reference, And somehow they were all very familiar with the word of God.

What makes you think that? Do you know that the Septuagint (LXX) is the CORRUPTED translation of the Hebrew Tanakh? People claim that Christ and His apostles were quoting from the LXX, but that is false. I have personally examined this, and only 10% or less of the OT quotations in the NT resemble the LXX (and that too partially). And when there is translation from Hebrew to Greek there is bound to be some resemblance. But the quotations are all from the Hebrew Bible, since the Holy Spirit would not use a corrupt Bible. There are some major corruptions in the LXX.

The Palestinian Jews used the Hebrew Tanakh, while the Hellenistic Jews (outside Palestine) had been influenced by Greek philosophy and mythology. They were the ones using the LXX, but it is not a true Bible. The very fact that it has 51 books (including all of the apocryphal books) proves that it is corrupt.

The Hebrew Bible has only 24 books, and when Christ referred to the OT, He confirmed that only those 24 books were Scripture. They correspond to our 39 books of the OT since they were split into their components when the LXX was translated.

And He [Christ] said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in [1] the Law of Moses, and in [2] The Prophets, and in [3] The Psalms, concerning me. Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand The Scriptures... (Lk 24:44,45)

What did Christ mean?
The Law of Moses = TORAH = 5 books (Genesis to Deuteronomy)
The Prophets = NEVIIM = 8 books
The Psalms = KETUVIM = 11 books (Psalms being the first book)
Total books = 24 in the TANAKH

So when Paul wrote to Timothy about how he had been grounded in "the Holy Scriptures" this is exactly what he too was talking about (not the LXX): And that from a child thou hast known The Holy Scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. (2 Tim 3:15)

 

[Waiting on him]

What makes you think that? Do you know that the Septuagint (LXX) is the CORRUPTED translation of the Hebrew Tanakh? People claim that Christ and His apostles were quoting from the LXX, but that is false. I have personally examined this, and only 10% or less of the OT quotations in the NT resemble the LXX (and that too partially). And when there is translation from Hebrew to Greek there is bound to be some resemblance. But the quotations are all from the Hebrew Bible, since the Holy Spirit would not use a corrupt Bible. There are some major corruptions in the LXX.

The Palestinian Jews used the Hebrew Tanakh, while the Hellenistic Jews (outside Palestine) had been influenced by Greek philosophy and mythology. They were the ones using the LXX, but it is not a true Bible. The very fact that it has 51 books (including all of the apocryphal books) proves that it is corrupt.

The Hebrew Bible has only 24 books, and when Christ referred to the OT, He confirmed that only those 24 books were Scripture. They correspond to our 39 books of the OT since they were split into their components when the LXX was translated.

And He [Christ] said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in [1] the Law of Moses, and in [2] The Prophets, and in [3] The Psalms, concerning me. Then opened he their understanding, that they might understand The Scriptures... (Lk 24:44,45)

What did Christ mean?
The Law of Moses = TORAH = 5 books (Genesis to Deuteronomy)
The Prophets = NEVIIM = 8 books
The Psalms = KETUVIM = 11 books (Psalms being the first book)
Total books = 24 in the TANAKH

So when Paul wrote to Timothy about how he had been grounded in "the Holy Scriptures" this is exactly what he too was talking about (not the LXX): And that from a child thou hast known The Holy Scriptures, which are able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus. (2 Tim 3:15)

Good job.