This is a question from another thread which I believe deserves a thread of its own.
Baptism by full immersion in the Jordan River was first carried out by John the Baptist for the Jews who had transgressed the Law. (Luke 3:3) It was a public symbol of their repentance and John B had been sent ahead of the Messiah to "prepare the way" (Luke 1:76-77) so those who submitted to John's baptism demonstrated that they were in the right frame of mind and heart to accept the Messiah's teachings. (Luke 1:16-17)
John's baptism was not to be permanent however, as he said that the one coming after him would go on increasing, whilst his work was decreasing. (John 3:30)
There is no record of baptism being a Jewish practice up until then, so it was a new concept to them.
The Greek word for baptize is "baptō" which means "to dip...or immerse"....so no sprinkling of water will ever baptize anyone because of what full immersion baptism symbolizes.
Jesus came to John at the river to present himself for baptism. John at first was hesitant because he had been baptizing in symbol of repentance for sins committed, but Jesus was sinless and John knew it. He told Jesus that he was the one who needed to be baptized by him. But Jesus said: “Let it be, this time, for in that way it is suitable for us to carry out all that is righteous.” (Matthew 3:13-15)
The baptism of Jesus therefore, must have had a meaning and purpose quite different from John’s baptism, as Jesus “committed no sin, nor was deception found in his mouth.” (1 Peter 2:22) So he could not submit to an act symbolizing repentance, since he had nothing over which to repent. Undoubtedly it was for this reason that John objected to baptizing Jesus.
So the questions open for discussion are....what was the purpose of Jesus' baptism?
Why did it need to be full immersion?
And how does Christian baptism differ from what John B performed?
Thoughts....?
Baptism by full immersion in the Jordan River was first carried out by John the Baptist for the Jews who had transgressed the Law. (Luke 3:3) It was a public symbol of their repentance and John B had been sent ahead of the Messiah to "prepare the way" (Luke 1:76-77) so those who submitted to John's baptism demonstrated that they were in the right frame of mind and heart to accept the Messiah's teachings. (Luke 1:16-17)
John's baptism was not to be permanent however, as he said that the one coming after him would go on increasing, whilst his work was decreasing. (John 3:30)
There is no record of baptism being a Jewish practice up until then, so it was a new concept to them.
The Greek word for baptize is "baptō" which means "to dip...or immerse"....so no sprinkling of water will ever baptize anyone because of what full immersion baptism symbolizes.
Jesus came to John at the river to present himself for baptism. John at first was hesitant because he had been baptizing in symbol of repentance for sins committed, but Jesus was sinless and John knew it. He told Jesus that he was the one who needed to be baptized by him. But Jesus said: “Let it be, this time, for in that way it is suitable for us to carry out all that is righteous.” (Matthew 3:13-15)
The baptism of Jesus therefore, must have had a meaning and purpose quite different from John’s baptism, as Jesus “committed no sin, nor was deception found in his mouth.” (1 Peter 2:22) So he could not submit to an act symbolizing repentance, since he had nothing over which to repent. Undoubtedly it was for this reason that John objected to baptizing Jesus.
So the questions open for discussion are....what was the purpose of Jesus' baptism?
Why did it need to be full immersion?
And how does Christian baptism differ from what John B performed?
Thoughts....?