Hi Wormwood, the above has already been discussed, examined, and utterly refuted in extreme detail [SIZE=10pt]in posts #13, [/SIZE][SIZE=10pt]#20, #36, #59, and #108, so as earlier stated, we're just going to have to respectfully agree to disagree. Thank you.[/SIZE]Wormwood said:Your recapitulation of these verses suggest they are not general condemnations. However, the most straight-forward reading of the Greek in the NT prohibitions of homosexuality are very much general prohibitions:
These verses are about as generic as they get. I will address the Greek wording in particular since I know that has been a major contention in this thread. I know that you are not interested in discussing the Greek with me, Aaron, so this is directed at others following this forum who may be confused about the actual wording in these particular verses.
In 1 Timothy 1:10, we have the phrase πόρνοις ἀρσενοκοίταις. Allow me to break down this phrase so it makes more sense. Pornois is a general word referring to sexual immorality. It where we get our word porn-ography. Porn comes from this word and ography comes from the Greek word graphe which means writing. The more important word is arsenokoitais. This is a conjunction of two words arsen - male and koites - bed. This is also one of the words used in 1 Cor. 6:9. This word is not used in Paul's day and therefore it is likely one he coined based on Leviticus 20 that declares it unlawful for a male to lie with another male in bed in place of a woman. It is completely unwarranted, in my opinion, to see these very generic prohibitions (thieves, idolatry, greed, drunkenness) and then claim that this particular word Paul coined has a very specific meaning of only one kind of homosexuality in a very limited sense. There is nothing here to indicate this. It is a very generic list of prohibitions with a coined word that specifically prohibits sexual intercourse between two men as immoral. Paul makes no effort to qualify this word which gives us a very clear picture of what he has in mind. Furthermore, the thought process of Paul seems very clear since historically both Jews and Christians all recognized any and every homosexual activity to be unlawful. We know of no ancient Jewish or Christian teaching that argued for the validity of certain forms of homosexual activity.
Out of time for this post...try to post more later
That said, I would like the following question addressed in honesty, which for some strange reason, no one seems able to easily address or answer, even though it's been posted here for over 4 hours. 7angels stated earlier:
[SIZE=10pt]"A taboo[/SIZE][SIZE=10pt] is a vehement prohibition of an action based on the belief that such behavior is either too [/SIZE][SIZE=10pt]sacred[/SIZE][SIZE=10pt] or too accursed for ordinary individuals to undertake, under threat of supernatural punishment. The term was translated to him as "consecrated, inviolable, forbidden, unclean or cursed." [/SIZE]
[SIZE=9pt]"abomination means worthy of or causing disgust or hatred." [/SIZE]
[SIZE=10pt]Leviticus 11:10 says:[/SIZE]
[SIZE=10pt]"And all that have not fins and scales in the seas, and in the rivers, of all that move in the waters, and of any living thing which is in the waters, they shall be an abomination unto you."[/SIZE]
[SIZE=10pt]You never addressed or answered my very simple question I asked you earlier, so I ask you again:[/SIZE]
[SIZE=10pt]Based upon your reasoning and description of abomination and taboo you listed above, does that mean you think we should feel disgust or hatred for people who eat shellfish, shrimp, or octopus since God lists those as 'abominations' as well?[/SIZE]