Wool and linen

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

theophilus

Well-Known Member
Nov 13, 2012
433
366
63
83
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
It is easy to see the reason for many of the commands God gives but there are others that don’t seem to make any sense. For example, what about this one?

You shall not wear cloth of wool and linen mixed together.
Deuteronomy 22:11 ESV


What difference can it possibly make what our clothes are made of?

There is another place in the Bible where wool and linen are mentioned together. The last part of Ezekiel includes a description of the temple that will exist during the Millenium and this is part of the instructions for the priests who offer sacrifices there.

When they enter the gates of the inner court, they shall wear linen garments. They shall have nothing of wool on them, while they minister at the gates of the inner court, and within. They shall have linen turbans on their heads, and linen undergarments around their waists. They shall not bind themselves with anything that causes sweat.
Ezekiel 44:17-18 ESV


The significance of linen is revealed in Revelation 19:6-8.

Then I heard what seemed to be the voice of a great multitude, like the roar of many waters and like the sound of mighty peals of thunder, crying out, “Hallelujah! For the Lord our God the Almighty reigns. Let us rejoice and exult and give him the glory, for the marriage of the Lamb has come, and his Bride has made herself ready; it was granted her to clothe herself with fine linen, bright and pure”— for the fine linen is the righteous deeds of the saints.

A saint is someone who has been saved by faith in Christ. Ephesians 2:8-10 shows how a Christian’s deeds are related to his salvation.

For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.

The good deeds a Christian does are not the means of acquiring salvation but the result of salvation. Salvation isn’t the result of anything we do but being saved will lead us to do what is good. Linen symbolizes the good works that are the result of salvation and not intended as a means of acquiring it.

The passage from Ezekiel equates wool with what causes sweat. This means that wool is a symbol of trying to achieve salvation by our works.

Many people think that salvation is the result of a combination of faith and works. There are many variations of this belief: for example, we must believe and be baptized or we are saved by faith but we must live a good life in order to keep our salvation. Wearing something made of both wool and linen is a symbol of this kind of teaching.
 
  • Like
Reactions: clark thompson

lforrest

Well-Known Member
Staff member
Admin
Aug 10, 2012
5,599
6,855
113
Faith
Christian
There are many laws that are symbolic of some truth meant for the Church.
 

katabole

New Member
Nov 11, 2010
25
7
0
The true North
The Biblical law as a whole is separated into unique parts.

There are judgments.
There are non-ceremonial laws.
There are ceremonial laws also called ordinances.
And there are statutes also called commandments.

These four categories encompass the entire law as a whole, described by Christ as the law and the prophets.

Paul tells the Colossians something very pertinent about the Biblical law:

Col 2:14 Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross;

When Christ died on the cross, the ordinances which are also ceremonial laws were done away with. If Paul had said that Christ blotted out the "Law", then that would change the meaning of the verse. But Paul specifically says ordinances. For example, no longer do we have to sacrifice animals for atonement from sin. The ceremony or ordinance involving animal sacrifice is no more. Animal sacrifice in the Israelite culture was a ceremonial law. Christ did away with it on the cross.

I can understand the symbolism of the Deuteronomy 22:11 verse as well as Ezekiel 44:17,18. That makes sense. But that particular ceremonial law taken for what it actually means in the strict literal sense, was done away with when Christ died on the cross. As were all the rest of the ceremonial laws.

Judgments (many of which are still future), non-ceremonial laws and statutes or commandments like,"You shall do no murder" are still valid. Unlike the ordinances, Christ did not destroy those.

Matthew 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

Some will disagree with me, however, I believe the food laws for example, are still valid because those laws are not ordinances. They are not ceremonial laws. The food laws are non-ceremonial laws. They were given for health reasons. Eating food which God commanded to eat is not going to save a person. It may help them to live a longer, healthier life though. The food laws were not given for salvation.

Rom 7:12 Wherefore the law is holy, and the commandment holy, and just, and good.

But we also know who the law was for:

1 Tim 1:9 Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers,

1Tim 1:10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine;

I think in some aspects, part of the difficulty are members of the modern church trying to understand the difference between a judgment, an ordinance, a statute and a non-ceremonial law, when they have never studied the Bible to know the difference between them and then just lump them in altogether and call it, "The Law". Some believe the entirety of the law was done away with, including judgments on nations. Some mistake a non-ceremonial law for a ceremonial one. Some believe the commandments today are invalid.

I believe the body of Christ has to do what Paul told Timothy in 2 Tim 2:15: "Study to show yourself approved", he said. "Rightly dividing the word of truth". Many Christians do not study. Nor do they rightly divide when they must do both for correct understanding. Biblical illiteracy is one of the greatest causes of the waning of the modern church. If they did study and rightly divide, then they would understand not only why God gave the Israelites the ordinance regarding wool and linen and that Christ did away with it when He died on the cross. But they would also understand both its spiritual and symbolic implications.
 

UppsalaDragby

New Member
Feb 6, 2012
543
40
0
Katabole said:
There are ceremonial laws also called ordinances.
And there are statutes also called commandments.
Where does the Bible say that ceremonial laws were called ordinances and commandments called statutes?

Hint: it doesn't!

It's just that SDAs need to create a distinction between them in order to support their doctrine. Christ didn't die to save us from ceremonies, he died to save us from our sins!
 

katabole

New Member
Nov 11, 2010
25
7
0
The true North
Sure it does. It says it in the Bible. Check out your Strong’s Concordance:

Commandment(s)s:



[SIZE=14pt]mitsvah
mits-vaw'
[/SIZE]​


[SIZE=14pt]from 'tsavah' (6680http://www.sacrednamebible.com/kjvstrongs/FRMSTRHEB66.htm#S6680); a command, whether human or divine (collectively, the Law):--(which was) commanded(-ment), law, statute, precept.[/SIZE]


Law(s)



[SIZE=14pt]towrah
to-raw'
[/SIZE]​


[SIZE=14pt]or torah {to-raw'}; from 'yarah' (3384http://www.sacrednamebible.com/kjvstrongs/FRMSTRHEB33.htm#S3384); a precept or statute, especially the Decalogue or Pentateuch:--law.[/SIZE]


Ordinance(s):



[SIZE=14pt]chuqqah
khook-kaw'
[/SIZE]​


[SIZE=14pt]feminine of 'choq' (2706http://www.sacrednamebible.com/kjvstrongs/FRMSTRHEB27.htm#S2706), and meaning substantially the same:-- a ceremonial law, custom, ordinance, site[/SIZE]



I am not an SDA. I do not know why you assumed I was but it would of been nice if you had simply asked. I am a member of an large, independent, non-denominational, worldwide Christian church that happens to be growing while many churches are declining.


There is a distinction between them! That's why I used the Strong's Concordance to point out to you the differences which you evidently do not understand because you were probably never taught to know that there was and is a difference.


UppsalaDragby said:
Christ didn't die to save us from ceremonies, he died to save us from our sins!
I agree. But the verse I quoted from from Colossians wasn't disputing that. When Christ died on the cross, he not only saved us from sins but he made those ordinances irrelevant. It says something similar in Ephesians:

Ephesians 2:15 Having abolished in His flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in Himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
 

UppsalaDragby

New Member
Feb 6, 2012
543
40
0
Katabole said:
Sure it does. It says it in the Bible. Check out your Strong’s Concordance:
No, the Bible does not say that. All you are doing is throwing out definitions and assuming it proves your point. It doesn't do that, just as it does not make neat little categories in the way you are suggesting.

Furthermore, you are trying to link the English word "ordinances" which is a translation of the Greek word "do'g-mä" (Strongs G1380) in Colossians, and assuming it is equivalent to the Hebrew word "chuqqah" which is defined here:

http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/Lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=H2708&t=KJV as:

statute, ordinance, limit, enactment, something prescribed

  1. statute
And I could just as easily link the word ordinance in Colossians with "choq" which Strongs translates in the following manner: statute (87x), ordinance (9x), decree (7x), due (4x), law (4x), portion (3x), bounds (2x), custom (2x), appointed (1x), commandments (1x), misc (7x).

You see the problem is that most of these words laws, ordinances, commandments, decrees and so on are used interchangeably in scripture.

I am not an SDA. I do not know why you assumed I was but it would of been nice if you had simply asked. I am a member of an large, independent, non-denominational, worldwide Christian church that happens to be growing while many churches are declining.
I assumed you were because you seemed to be using the same kind of arguments that are uncommon outside of SDA theology, which is strange for someone who claims to be "non-denominational".

And if you are non-denominational, why then do you belong to a denomination?

There is a distinction between them! That's why I used the Strong's Concordance to point out to you the differences which you evidently do not understand because you were probably never taught to know that there was and is a difference.
Oh I know what a difference is. Please don't try to insult my intelligence. But simply pointing out differences does not prove anything unless the Bible itself gives the same significance to the the differences that you do.

I agree. But the verse I quoted from from Colossians wasn't disputing that. When Christ died on the cross, he not only saved us from sins but he made those ordinances irrelevant. It says something similar in Ephesians:
What Christ did was make the entire Mosaic law obsolete for those who believe. There is no division in that law. Nothing in the Mosaic law has either been made "irrelevant" or "destroyed". Jesus said that until heaven and earth disappeared "not the smallest letter, not the least stroke of a pen, will by any means disappear from the Law until everything is accomplished.