farouk
Well-Known Member
Hi @Waiting on him Good to see you!You never answered my post.
I was a bit confused by Truth7t7's comment...
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Hi @Waiting on him Good to see you!You never answered my post.
With some men all they can see is death, destruction, and evil. They eat the fruit of it.
They are not incompatible with the ref. in John's First Epistle to 'many antichrists'.
(cc @Naomi25 )
I believe I did, however repost it or direct me to its number?You never answered my post.
John in his epistle spoke of the general (Spirit Of Antichrist) those that deny Jesus Came in the fleshAmen John’s antichrist in his epistles is very different from John’s sea beast of revelation
Daniel 9:27 KJVI believe I did, however repost it or direct me to its number?
Scripture strongly suggest the "Future" image of the beast being set up is the abomination that makes desolate?Daniel 9:27 KJV
[27] And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.
Who do you see as being the desolate in this verse?
John in his epistle spoke of the general (Spirit Of Antichrist) those that deny Jesus Came in the flesh
Whenever the words (The Antichrist) is used with Preterist, many divert/deflect to John's epistle in representation of the words
The Standard Preterist name game on (The Antichrist)Yet John also wrote revelation and didn’t use the term antichrist once. John’s description of the antichrist and the beast are very different.
I ‘quoted’ him as far as I referred to his previous comment…just as I did yours. But in my reply I quoted the passage from 1 John 2, referencing many direct words from that verse….it was to that I was referring.You quoted Farouk not yourself in validation of his/her comments regarding 1 John 2
Yes (The Spirit Of Antichrist) in 1 John 2 is used by many, including Preterist to discredit a future evil man (The Antichrist) when the word (The Antichrist) is used, I never claimed you were a preterist
Ah. Forgive me. But…I am unsure what you are attempting to say here. Yes, clearly we are the body of Christ. Your point….thanks!We are the body of Christ.
Post #69 above will get you familiar with the Preterist name game on the words (The Antichrist)I ‘quoted’ him as far as I referred to his previous comment…just as I did yours. But in my reply I quoted the passage from 1 John 2, referencing many direct words from that verse….it was to that I was referring.
I’m not actually aware of how Preterists deal with 1 John 2, and if, as you say, they dismiss his clear reference to an antichrist who is to come, then indeed I believe they are in error. It is not just John’s reference here. As you’ve pointed out, there are several passages that point to a final man. Most of them are convincing in this manner, as they speak of this man being alive and active when and for Christ’s return…as he is to defeat him at his return. This is rather conclusive in my mind.
The Standard Preterist name game on (The Antichrist)
The word Trinity or Rapture isnt in the bible, and is used by many, and you know well what they mean
When a person in eschatology use the term (The Antichrist) you know well what that means also, thats my opinion
Many within eschatology use the catch all phrase (The Antichrist) when speaking of the figure below
All represent the same future human man (The Antichrist) "Unfulfilled"
Daniel speaks of (The Little Horn) Daniel 7:8-11
Paul speaks of (The Man Of Sin) 2 Thessalonians 2:3
John's Speaks of (The Beast) Revelation 13:1-5
"The Preterist Name Game"It’s not just the term it’s the difference in descriptions of the personalities that John uses
What people get confused with the interpretation of scripture is that’s it’s messages
The Standard Preterist name game on (The Antichrist)
John never used the term (The Antichrist) in his epistles as you claim, it was the general spirit of Antichrist in those that deny Jesus came in the flesh
The word Trinity or Rapture isnt in the bible, and is used by many, and you know well what they mean
When a person in eschatology use the term (The Antichrist) you know well what that means also, thats my opinion
Many within eschatology use the catch all phrase (The Antichrist) when speaking of the figure below
All represent the same future human man (The Antichrist) "Unfulfilled"
Daniel speaks of (The Little Horn) Daniel 7:8-11
Paul speaks of (The Man Of Sin) 2 Thessalonians 2:3
John's Speaks of (The Beast) Revelation 13:1-5
Yet John also wrote revelation and didn’t use the term antichrist once. John’s description of the antichrist and the beast are very different.
Jesus claims that at His Second Appearing, He would establish His throne.The earthly Temple and Jerusalem were made desolate.
I did not mention Satan or paradise.
Daniel 9, the whole chapter has nothing to do with Antiochus Epiphanies. That would be chapter 8 and again in chapter 11. So Daniel 9 has nothing to do with what Jesus spoke about in the OD.Prophetic foreshortening means Daniel would not have had to see 3 events. Not unless you also insist that the OT prophets had to have seen (and understood) that their Messiah was coming in two separate comings.
The simple fact is that the Prophets didn’t always understand what they saw, and this is because it was often given to them in ways that were almost impossible to understand from their vantage point.
You claim that Daniel had no real prophetic meaning in the desolation of Antiochus E or 70AD…that Matt 24 was only ‘followed by chance’ as well. But like everyone else making claims, you have no biblical proof for this.
The Preterists could very well be wrong… I am not a Preterist, but I feel that rejecting the stark coincidences that aligned on both occasions makes dismissing them, at least as prefiguring events, as dangerous. How many Pharisees and Jews dismissed Jesus, do you think, saying that the fact that his life ‘matched the prophecies’ was just a coincidence, or he had manipulated them to do so? How many of them ignored those facts by pushing their coming Messiah off into the future…for a more ‘perfect fulfilment’?
I do, as it happens, believe there is good scriptural arguments to suggest there WILL be a final fulfilment…I just think it behooves us to be cautious that we do not fall into these same traps…that we consider, carefully, all historical and biblical cases, and not to dismiss things simply because we have our hearts set on something else, or our allegiance already aligned with some system.
Jesus Christ will return in fire and Final Judgement, dissolving this earth by fireJesus claims that at His Second Appearing, He would establish His throne.
You then said, "No, it is established already".
We are talking about the throne that Satan is allowed to make desolate. Satan did not desolate Jesus on the Cross. Satan did not make the already desolate temple more desolate 40 years after the Cross. Satan cannot make desolate the throne currently in heaven. So why all the Scripture claiming this man of lawlessness, ie Satan makes anything desolate? Why does Daniel 9:27 claim that Jesus Christ as Prince will allow this desolation to occur? Since none of the historical incidences that have already happened have not literally involved Satan or his puppet to sit in Jerusalem and the temple and make it desolate, it is still in the future.
Jesus claimed in the OD, "at His appearing".
I…followed very little of that.Daniel 9, the whole chapter has nothing to do with Antiochus Epiphanies. That would be chapter 8 and again in chapter 11. So Daniel 9 has nothing to do with what Jesus spoke about in the OD.
Daniel 9:26 is about Jesus as Messiah. Daniel 9:27 is about Jesus as Prince. 26 is the beginning of desolation, ie 70AD, and ends with a future desolation of Jerusalem. Unless you can show the historical record of this part:
"and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined."
"And the serpent cast out of his mouth water as a flood after the woman, that he might cause her to be carried away of the flood. And the earth helped the woman, and the earth opened her mouth, and swallowed up the flood which the dragon cast out of his mouth."
Whether literal or symbolic, when did the earth open up and swallow a threat to Israel at any time in history?
There is no human AC. So nothing in Daniel, the OD, nor Revelation will claim this human AC. There is the action of Satan to completely separate the church from the whole Torah of Moses. It started with the Greeks as western science. It started with the church in Rome, as a whole body of law completely foreign to Both the OT and the NT. That is why at the Reformation, many were crying foul at the RCC. Yet the science part kept going to this day, when Genesis 1 can no longer be taught as science, but some ancient mythology. Even the church has in most part turned it into allegory.
Yes, there will be a final fulfillment, but after the Second Coming. It cannot be before, because Christ the Prince has to come to have a throne in Jerusalem and a temple where this throne is. Only then can the prophecy be fulfilled of a future AoD. This is not about the body of Jesus, the 70AD destruction of Jerusalem and the temple, nor the spiritual body of the church, and definitely not the current reign of Christ in heaven.
It has not happened yet.