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1 Tim. 3:16 ("God was manifest in the flesh")
As this is translated in the
KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is
God “manifest in the flesh.”
Although the
KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “
he” (
NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70];
AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “
he who” (
ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old
Douay version has “
which was manifested in the flesh.” All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“
who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do these noted
trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16? - Dr. Frederick C. Grant; United Bible Societies (UBS); Murray J. Harris; A. T. Robertson; Daniel B. Wallace; etc.
"As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be,
it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342,
Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.
John 1:1c
As for your continued use of this after I have posted
#134-137, 141 above, and you embarrassed yourself with your incorrect challenges of them - I don't believe you care a whit for truth. At the very least you could have acknowledged that there is an honest alternate to the trinitarian's favorite translation.
Examining the Trinity