Do you accept this a Biblical fact or fiction?:

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michaelvpardo

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The Bible doesn't teach that sir, and what I said is simply truth, any honest individual knows that God has the right to determine who sits where, and Jesus clearly stated Jehovah knew the day and hour but he did not, if he did then obviously it is a lie. I recommend that you do further research on who God is, as your everlasting life depends on knowing God 2 Thes 1:8
Sorry, but you're just making stuff up now. No where in scripture does Jesus say that "Jehovah knew the day and hour". Read the passage again slowly. Jesus always refers to God as the Father, not as Jehovah. You're trying to make scripture conform to your belief rather than conforming your belief to scripture, a common error referred to as isogesis.
 

Ronald Nolette

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.................................................
1 Tim. 3:16 ("God was manifest in the flesh")

As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.”

Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “he” (NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “he who” (ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old Douay version has “which was manifested in the flesh.” All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do these noted trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16? - Dr. Frederick C. Grant; United Bible Societies (UBS); Murray J. Harris; A. T. Robertson; Daniel B. Wallace; etc.

"As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be, it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.

John 1:1c

As for your continued use of this after I have posted #134-137, 141 above, and you embarrassed yourself with your incorrect challenges of them - I don't believe you care a whit for truth. At the very least you could have acknowledged that there is an honest alternate to the trinitarian's favorite translation.
Examining the Trinity

Well three online Greek bibles, Zodhiates Greek/English NT all have Deos in the Greek. Some have He, some- who, some god. all three are correct based on the rest of Scripture.

As for those Scholares you mention- I don't know- you will have to ask them.
 

Ronald Nolette

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I was checking to see where you were coming from on this. Then it is according to your belief in a "hypostatic union" which men have described. I do not have faith in that.

I cannot follow @theefaith on his part in this nor can I follow you on your part. To me the two arguments sound the same.

I see neither one of them as being from God, but that is my belief by faith. I am not pressing you to accept it.

Give God the glory!


Well that is your privilege. I do not know what you accept about teh person of jesus, but I agree with Gabriel in his announcement- He shall be called "Emmanuel" which means god is with us. Jesus was true God and true man though I cannot fully understand it.
 

amadeus

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Well that is your privilege. I do not know what you accept about teh person of jesus, but I agree with Gabriel in his announcement- He shall be called "Emmanuel" which means god is with us. Jesus was true God and true man though I cannot fully understand it.
Nor do I fully understand it.

Since I still live for God by faith, even though I believe that I have some knowledge, I also believe that only God can separate the one [faith] from the other [knowledge] correctly in every case.
 

Ronald Nolette

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As I understand it, believers in the Trinity believe that Jesus is God, and by referring to Jesus as being divine, or equally divine as his Father, they mean that they believe Jesus is part of God (God being made up of three persons in their belief), and that he has the same spirit being nature as his Father. However, if a person has the same nature as our heavenly Father that does not mean that he is our Father and our God. Jesus now has the same divine nature as God (Yahweh), but that does not mean that God is a Binity, Trinity or any other combination of persons.

Deuteronomy 6:4 (WEB): "Hear, Israel: Yahweh is our God. Yahweh is one."

2 Peter 1:4 (WEB): by which he has granted to us his precious and exceedingly great promises; that through these you may become partakers of the divine nature, having escaped from the corruption that is in the world by lust.
1 John 3:2 (WEB): Beloved, now we are children of God, and it is not yet revealed what we will be. But we know that when he is revealed, we will be like him; for we will see him just as he is.

God is calling us to become His children, to become just like Jesus, to have the divine nature. So clearly, Jesus having the divine nature, his divinity, does not mean that he is God, just as when we gain the divine nature in our resurrection does not mean that we become God. God will still be greater than us, more powerful, more knowledgable, more intelligent and more glorious - just as He is greater than Jesus. He will still be just one almighty God.

Concerning the resurrection body of Christians, Paul said in 1 Corinthians 15 (WEB):
41) There is one glory of the sun, another glory of the moon, and another glory of the stars; for one star differs from another star in glory.
42) So also is the resurrection of the dead. The body is sown perishable; it is raised imperishable.

So after our resurrection we won't all be equal in glory, and God will alway be more glorious than His sons, including His only-begotten son Jesus.

Philppians 2:6 (WEB): who [Jesus], existing in the form of God, didn’t consider equality with God a thing to be grasped,

Well Jesus has always existed as God. He has always had the same divine nature as His Fatrher, He didn't earn it nor was it given to Him for good deeds or whatever you may think. We PARTAKE in the divine nature, Jesus is divine inherently.

Jesus is not part of God the Father. He is God with hIS fATHER. Jesus is not the Father nor is His position in the Triunity of God equal to the Father Jesus is subordinate to His Father, but that does not make Him any less divine than His Father any more than the fact that my children are subordinate to me make them any less human than me!

I have a wife and six children- We are seven individuals, but we make up one family.

In God there is Father, Son, and Holy Spirit and these three individuals make up the one God of the Bible. The Elohim (plural), The Adonai (plural) etec.etc.
 
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charity

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@Charity said:-
'The light of the body is the eye:
if therefore thine eye be single,
thy whole body shall be full of light.
But if thine eye be evil,
thy whole body shall be full of darkness.
If therefore the light that is in thee be darkness,
how great is that darkness!'

(Mat 6:22-23)

Hello @Robert Gwin,

The words highlighted above I find awesome. 'If therefore the light that is in thee be darkness, how great is that darkness'.

How careful we must be to ensure that the 'light' that we have received is indeed not 'darkness' masquerading as light: For if it is. then we are of all people most miserable, for we are in a state of deception.
Yes maam I fully agree, satan is extremely good at what he does. He is infinitely more powerful than us for sure, but keep in mind he has no power over Jehovah, who protects His people, he only has power over those who allow it.
Hello @Robert Gwin,

I made no mention of Satan in my post: but agree that the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ is Almighty God, and able to save to the uttermost those who come unto Him for salvation, through faith in the all-sufficient sacrifice of His Beloved Son.

In Christ Jesus
Chris
 

charity

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@charity said:-
'The LORD said unto my Lord,
Sit Thou at My right hand,
until I make Thine enemies Thy footstool.'
(Psalm 110:1)

Hello @Robert Gwin,

I am not aware of any 'alteration', I simply quoted Psalm 110:1, and pointed out two of the names used of God: within different contexts, which are used there. Both are used of God:- (Jehovah) used of God in relationship with His People, and 'Adon', which is used in relation to His Lordship as ruler in the Earth.
You yourself put Jehovah in parenthesis after it. LORD is not what was there as you mentioned Adon for the second Lord, the original written verse stated Jehovah said to my Lord which was God saying to Jesus. Light research will reveal that wherever the KJV capitalizes all the letters of LORD that is where the Divine Name YHWH was, not Adonai. Some versions have a forward that explains the reason why they chose to alter the Divine name in their version. You of course have to determine the truth for yourself, as what I am telling you is either correct or false.
'The LORD said unto my Lord,
Sit Thou at my right hand,
until I make Thine enemies Thy footstool. '
(Psalm 110:1)
Hello @Robert Gwin,

The word of God uses many names when referring to God, it all depends on the context, the circumstance in which reference to Him is being made. I listed them in a recent post, and you responded to that, so you must know this to be true. I placed the word, 'Jehovah' in brackets beside the first use of Lord in Psalm 110:1, because that is the Hebrew word that it was translated from; and placed in brackets against the following one, the word, 'Adon', for that was the Hebrew word from which that word was translated. I am fully aware that the latter word 'Lord' (Adon) refers to the Messiah (the Lord Jesus Christ) in this context. In Psalm 110:1, the context concerns the millennial reign of the Messiah, hence the name 'Adon' is ascribed to Him: for it is used in relation to God as ruler in the earth.

My copy of the KJV uses various letter types to define the names used of God, and the marginal notes give the name and the reason for it's use. There has been no alteration made as you suggest.

In Christ Jesus
The risen and glorified
Saviour, Lord and Head.
Chris
 
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tigger 2

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There is only one personal name of God which is used many thousands of times in the OT Hebrew texts: YHWH ("Jehovah" or "Yahweh"). All other "names" are titles or descriptions. Even though the KJV has deleted that name (Jehovah) many thousands of times and in nearly all cases replaced it with another word (not a translation - a replacement) "LORD" or "GOD," nevertheless, it still makes the matter clear.

Psalm 83:18 King James Version:
18 That men may know that thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the most high over all the earth.


Jehovah, the special and significant name (not merely an appellative title such as Lord) by which God revealed himself to the ancient Hebrews” - p. 330, Today’s Dictionary of the Bible, Bethany House Publ., 1982.
 
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michaelvpardo

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As I understand it, believers in the Trinity believe that Jesus is God, and by referring to Jesus as being divine, or equally divine as his Father, they mean that they believe Jesus is part of God (God being made up of three persons in their belief), and that he has the same spirit being nature as his Father. However, if a person has the same nature as our heavenly Father that does not mean that he is our Father and our God. Jesus now has the same divine nature as God (Yahweh), but that does not mean that God is a Binity, Trinity or any other combination of persons.

Deuteronomy 6:4 (WEB): "Hear, Israel: Yahweh is our God. Yahweh is one."

2 Peter 1:4 (WEB): by which he has granted to us his precious and exceedingly great promises; that through these you may become partakers of the divine nature, having escaped from the corruption that is in the world by lust.
1 John 3:2 (WEB): Beloved, now we are children of God, and it is not yet revealed what we will be. But we know that when he is revealed, we will be like him; for we will see him just as he is.

God is calling us to become His children, to become just like Jesus, to have the divine nature. So clearly, Jesus having the divine nature, his divinity, does not mean that he is God, just as when we gain the divine nature in our resurrection does not mean that we become God. God will still be greater than us, more powerful, more knowledgable, more intelligent and more glorious - just as He is greater than Jesus. He will still be just one almighty God.

Concerning the resurrection body of Christians, Paul said in 1 Corinthians 15 (WEB):
41) There is one glory of the sun, another glory of the moon, and another glory of the stars; for one star differs from another star in glory.
42) So also is the resurrection of the dead. The body is sown perishable; it is raised imperishable.

So after our resurrection we won't all be equal in glory, and God will alway be more glorious than His sons, including His only-begotten son Jesus.

Philppians 2:6 (WEB): who [Jesus], existing in the form of God, didn’t consider equality with God a thing to be grasped,
Erroneous conclusions.
God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets, 2 has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds; 3 who being the brightness of His glory and the express image of His person, and upholding all things by the word of His power, when He had by Himself purged our sins, sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, 4 having become so much better than the angels, as He has by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they.

Jesus is the glory of God and the only God we can ever know until the beginning of the new creation.

Kiss the Son, lest He be angry, And you perish in the way, When His wrath is kindled but a little. Blessed are all those who put their trust in Him. Psalm 2:12

let it be known to you all, and to all the people of Israel, that by the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth, whom you crucified, whom God raised from the dead, by Him this man stands here before you whole. 11 This is the ‘stone which was rejected by you builders, which has become the chief cornerstone.’ 12 Nor is there salvation in any other, for there is no other name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved.” Acts 4:10-12
 
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michaelvpardo

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The name Jehovah doesn't exist in scripture except in some modern translations. The original language only gives His covenant name in 4 consonants, known as the tetragrammaton, and those letters are Yod, He, Vaw, He.
Jews stopped pronouncing the name out loud thousands of years ago to avoid blasphemy. All the names of God in scripture are descriptive of who He is or what He does.
I've only heard one born again Jewish teacher pronounce the name on the radio and he was taken off the air. When he returned he started using the modern scholars version, Yahweh, because its inoffensive to the Jews, but Yah havah was the censored name, not Jehovah, and Yah havah actually means Yah the life giver, just as Yah shua means Yah our savior. Biblical names all have meaning, but Jehovah has no meaning. You guys have missed the mark by a mile.
 

michaelvpardo

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I recommend these:
1. New World Translation
2. American Standard Version


The main reason of the order of my selection is because of God's name. The KJV does make known Jehovah's name, but it is very limited in doing so, but because it was to be the main version used by the world past for centuries, Jehovah did protect His name from being omitted entirely, therefore I believe that He accepts it.

Now that the New World Translation has emerged, my personal opinion is that it is the easiest one to understand, therefore reducing the effort needed to find truth.
The New World translation is satanic and no Christian should ever read it.
 

tigger 2

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The New World translation is satanic and no Christian should ever read it.

Show us the 5 most "satanic" major scriptures you are aware of in the NWT. General statements which themselves demonize should be accompanied with specific examples and honest evidence.
 
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michaelvpardo

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Show us the 5 most "satanic" major scriptures you are aware of in the NWT. General statements which themselves demonize should be accompanied with specific examples and honest evidence.
Sorry, I burned the only copy I had after reading the 1st chapter of John's gospel. The New World Translation was created specifically to deny the deity of Christ, which is to say that it's authors were antichrist and anathema Maranatha (accursed at His coming). All who preach from it, preach a false gospel and are anathema Maranatha.
Years ago I invited some JW missionaries into my home to share the true gospel with them and successfully refuted all their claims, so they left and sent others who were more experienced. I invited them in also and refuted all their spurious claims directly from scripture and gave them the simple truth of the gospel, but they too left to seek the advice of their elders. Finally a third group which included elders came to my door and the Holy Spirit brought to mind this passage:
9 Whoever transgresses and does not abide in the doctrine of Christ does not have God. He who abides in the doctrine of Christ has both the Father and the Son. 10 If anyone comes to you and does not bring this doctrine, do not receive him into your house nor greet him; 11 for he who greets him shares in his evil deeds. 2 John 1:9-11
If the Holy Spirit says that someone is bringing a false gospel, then they're bringing a false gospel. Consequently I apologized to those elders but told them I could not invite them in because their doctrine was anathema Maranatha.
They never returned after that. Praise the Lord, revealer of secrets and the hidden councils of the heart. Amen and Amen.
 
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tigger 2

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So you can call it "satanic" and won't provide any specific examples or honest evidence. This is not how anyone who is to be considered honest should act. Sad.

I can say with all honesty that nearly all Bible translations have dishonestly translated in nearly 6000 places [YHWH]. The NWT (and ASV) are then, way ahead of these translations in that one area alone - ("satanic?").

There are a number which have also mistranslated 1 Timothy 3:16. ("satanic?")
 
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Abaxvahl

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So you can call it "satanic" and won't provide any specific examples or honest evidence. This is not how anyone who is to be considered honest should act. Sad.

The Satanic translation shows itself for what it is from the beginning of Genesis and the beginning of John with "active force" for Spirit of God (a deliberate mistranslation) and "a god" for "was God." The people who produced it were not even Christians so I am not surprised that it is that way.
 

David in NJ

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I AM is not God's name David, let me ask you point blank why you said it was rather than giving the name that Jehovah actually did give as being His name?

Not ignoring you, i was away on trip, just returned - will answer your Q's later - thank you
 

michaelvpardo

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So you can call it "satanic" and won't provide any specific examples or honest evidence. This is not how anyone who is to be considered honest should act. Sad.

I can say with all honesty that nearly all Bible translations have dishonestly translated in nearly 6000 places [YHWH]. The NWT (and ASV) are then, way ahead of these translations in that one area alone - ("satanic?").
So now you also blaspheme the Holy Spirit. Good luck with that. Turn to Christ and repent of your blasphemies and you can still be saved. I was lead to Christ by my brother in the Lord, Jerome, who was raised as a Jehovah's Witness but delivered from destruction by the gospel of Jesus Christ.
You don't have to be cast into the outer darkness, but may know Him personally and receive His Spirit for the asking. Just confess that He is Lord and risen from the dead, then pray to receive His Spirit and you too can receive eternal life in Him to the glory of God the Father. Amen.
 
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tigger 2

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post 315:
"The Satanic translation shows itself for what it is from the beginning of Genesis and the beginning of John with "active force" for Spirit of God (a deliberate mistranslation) and "a god" for "was God." The people who produced it were not even Christians so I am not surprised that it is that way."
......................

NWT - Gen. 1:2 "Now the earth proved to be formless and waste and there was darkness upon the surface of [the] watery deep; and God's active force
* was moving to and fro over the surface of the waters."
* Or "God's spirit." The Hebrew word ruach here, besides being many times translated "spirit," is also many times "wind" or other ways to denote an invisible active force.

"The Spirit of God, therefore, as based upon the idea of the ruach or breath of man, originally stood for the energy or power of God...." - Vol. 3, p. 1406, The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Eerdmans Publ., 1984.

NRSV Gen. 1:2 The earth was a formless void and darkness covered the face of the deep, while a wind from God* swept over the face of he waters.

*Or while the spirit of God or while a mighty wind

NAB Gen. 1:2 The earth was a formless wasteland, and darkness covered the abyss, while a mighty wind swept over the waters.

NJB Gen. 1:2 …. with a divine wind sweeping over the waters.

NABRE Gen. 1:2 and the earth was without form or shape, with darkness over the abyss and a mighty wind sweeping over the waters—

NEB and the earth was without form and void, with darkness over the face of the abyss, and a mighty wind that swept over the surface of the waters.

Notice that the NWT footnote for ruach in Gen. 1:2 explains it quite well and gives the alternate "God's spirit." Other translations using "wind," for example, do not always give a footnote.

So how is the NWT more "satanic" than the other respected Bibles listed? Why do you single out the NWT as being "a deliberate mistranslation"?

As for John 1:1c ("a god"), I spent years on this single scripture and I can attest to the fact, through my own in-depth research into John's grammar and usage, that "a god" is definitely the most honest translation of this.

I have posted links to my studies of this many times and I have even posted the shortest such studies, but no one has ever made an adequate examination or answer to the facts. Sooo disappointing, but not unexpected.

For the easiest of my John 1:1c studies, go back to posts #134-137, 141.
 
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Abaxvahl

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post 315:
"The Satanic translation shows itself for what it is from the beginning of Genesis and the beginning of John with "active force" for Spirit of God (a deliberate mistranslation) and "a god" for "was God." The people who produced it were not even Christians so I am not surprised that it is that way."
......................

NWT - Gen. 1:2 "Now the earth proved to be formless and waste and there was darkness upon the surface of [the] watery deep; and God's active force
* was moving to and fro over the surface of the waters."
* Or "God's spirit." The Hebrew word ruach here, besides being many times translated "spirit," is also many times "wind" or other ways to denote an invisible active force.

"The Spirit of God, therefore, as based upon the idea of the ruach or breath of man, originally stood for the energy or power of God...." - Vol. 3, p. 1406, The International Standard Bible Encyclopaedia, Eerdmans Publ., 1984.

NRSV Gen. 1:2 The earth was a formless void and darkness covered the face of the deep, while a wind from God* swept over the face of he waters.

*Or while the spirit of God or while a mighty wind

NAB Gen. 1:2 The earth was a formless wasteland, and darkness covered the abyss, while a mighty wind swept over the waters.

NJB Gen. 1:2 …. with a divine wind sweeping over the waters.

NABRE Gen. 1:2 and the earth was without form or shape, with darkness over the abyss and a mighty wind sweeping over the waters—

NEB and the earth was without form and void, with darkness over the face of the abyss, and a mighty wind that swept over the surface of the waters.

Notice that the NWT footnote for ruach in Gen. 1:2 explains it quite well and gives the alternate "God's spirit." Other translations using "wind," for example, do not always give a footnote.

So how is the NWT more "satanic" than the other respected Bibles listed? Why do you single out the NWT as being "a deliberate mistranslation"?

Spirit/wind/breath are all equivalent words for the most part. Inspiration, inbreathing, respiration, the idea of blowing, wind, etc. So no, those translations are all well and good. NWT remains having a deliberate mistranslation and I am fully aware of the footnote.

Now as for your many assertions about the Greek of John 1:1 that will require further study from me, and a perusal of the earliest native Greek-speaking commentators we have who wrote on this verse to see how they read it for more information, as I am naturally suspicious of many claims made about the intricacies and grammar of a language not only that I do not speak but which is dead.
 
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