1 cor which you posted states that all things are THROUGH the Lord.
Who is this Lord?
Could it be the one in
John 1?
The reason John wrote his gospel is to show that Jesus is God.
Can't you even trust John?
So if John wants to show how Jesus is God, the early Christian's had to come to terms with someone in whom they trusted.
This was John's teaching and apparently, the early intellectual Christian's that deciphered the writings agreed with John.
I am so pleased you raised this....what did John believe? Didn’t he believe the same as all the other apostles? Or was Jesus somehow like a leopard changing his spots? Did no one notice that John was teaching something other than what all the other apostles taught? Or was it that John’s gospel was the the last and easiest to misinterpret?
I have given trinitarians’ favourite verse endless explanations, but it always seems to fall on deaf ears and blind eyes.....there is a reason for this blindness I believe. (2 Corinthians 4:3-4) The one who wanted to alter God’s nature and his relationship with his son.
If you break the first Commandment, you have lost your salvation.
In Greek, John 1:1 does NOT say what it is translated to say in English.
There are two “gods” mentioned in that verse and if you consult the Greek interlinear it becomes very obvious where the omission is in English, and the inclusion is in Greek....
To define the nameless God/Lord of Israel, the Greeks used the definite article “
ho theos” (
THE God) to describe him in contrast to just “theos” without the definite article, which simply means “a god” or divine mighty one.
John 1:1 Mounce Interlinear (Biblegateway) Note that little word "ho" and where it is used in relation to God (Jehovah) and where it is missing in relation to Jesus.
"In en the beginning archē was eimi the ho Word logos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi with pros · ho God theos, and kai the ho Word logos was eimi God theos."
So the term “theos” (god) is not exclusive to Jehovah and applies also to Jesus, but without the definite article. If the divine name had still be in use, this confusion could never have happened.
John 1:1 would have read....
.”in the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with Jehovah and the Word was divine.” So it’s not saying that Jesus is “THE God” only that he is god-like, or divine. John 1:18 confirms that
"no man has ever seen God".
How many people saw Jesus?
EVERY council was to correct a heretical view.
The heretics leading the church were in no position to correct themselves let alone those who questioned their their adopted doctrines. When the Fox is guarding the hen house, how safe are the chickens?
The "weeds" were doing what weeds do best....spreading their seeds till the whole garden is overgrown with them. Why do you think Jesus said that "few" are on the cramped and narrow road to life? (Matthew 7:13-14) Its the "many" who are on the road to destruction.
If explaining the Trinity and the Hypostatic Union was so important, it means the opposing views were heretical and the orthodox view needed to be clarified.
There is no such thing as a “hypostatic union” ever mentioned in the Bible so how could it be important? This is how the church got their doctrines through, by inventing terms and using the power of suggestion to get them approved....it was no overnight affair, but challenged at every turn....time was the decider. Only when Christianity was so weak that it was no longer up for a fight did these doctrines and beliefs and practices get passed off as “Christian” doctrine. They never were. Do you think the “weeds” were never planted? Apostasy was beginning whilst the apostles were still alive, so when the last apostle (John) passed away, there was no longer any restraint to keep the 'wolves' from overtaking the church.
“By their fruits” Jesus said we would identify them. He said good trees do not produce rotten fruit. The rotten fruit of the church is established history. (2 Peter 2:1-3; 1 Timothy 4:1-3; Acts 20:30)
The OT is replete with verses about the spirit and a Son of Man that was being awaited. The Jews knew that Jesus calling Himself this Son was blasphemy because He was declaring Himself to be God.
If you understand the meaning of the word “god” in both Hebrew and Greek, you will see that it is NOT exclusive to Jehovah, anymore that the title “lord” is exclusive to God. Emphasis is placed on words that have changed meaning over the centuries, as if these titles can apply only to God. That is not true. Sarah called Abraham “Lord” But he was her husband, not her God.
Jehovah himself called the judges in Israel “gods” because they had divine authority.
Moses was said to be “god” to Pharaoh.....English translation coupled with trinitarians bias has let people down and misled them into false doctrines.
The Jews accused Jesus of blasphemy, not because he was claiming to be God, but calling himself God's son. (John 10:31-36) They wanted to condemn him in order to have the grounds to put him to death. If Jesus had claimed to be God, then the charge would have made him guilty....but he had to die as an innocent man.
If they believed it, perhaps we should too.
Not a chance.....I believe what God’s word says and the apostate Christians of later centuries have nothing to say to me that counters what God’s word says.....you can believe them if you wish....but I will pass, thank you.
