It is not a question.
Paul was explaining, as will I.
The issue is when Christ comes (again).
The quotes below are from another thread, so as not to highjack that other thread, but to pick up at that point and give an answer. Here is the passage where the apostle Paul explains:
...Or that knowing that Christ had first gone "to the Father", but has sense come "into me, and me in Him", rightfully counting it as a second time of His appearing...it cannot be said that He has come to all. In which case, most assume that He has not come again at all--which was also the confusion 2,000 years ago.
Such confusion could and should easily be explained using the example that Paul also gave of salvation referring to Adam, saying that "by the one man’s offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ." Meaning that just as all did not sin in one event with Adam--but each in his own order, the same would therefore also be true of salvation--which is note as the context of Paul's claim in Hebrews 9:28.
The problem is, that because Christ does not coming to all at once in the view of everyone else, everyone else assumes it never occurred...even though everyone whom Christ has come into and He in them, would never deny that He has come to them, effectively denying that He has in fact come again...which coming was just as He said, "quickly", "shortly", and with all power and glory of the Father, whom is "spirit." And that is the point of blindness resulting in unbelief: "spirit." Even though Jesus made it perfectly clear that "The words that I speak to you are spirit"...those born of the flesh are prone to believe against the spiritual truth of what is written. And then each passage that should confirm the spiritual truth, is also believed to mean something of the flesh.
The biggest occurred when Jesus asked Peter, “Who do men say that I, the Son of Man, am?” --Which, to the early church was not unlike Moses saying, "I have set before you life and death." It was a fork in the road--but this time, instead of being set before Israel, it was set before the church. Jesus then laid out two ways that could be taken: that His church might be upon "flesh and blood" or upon the spirit of "Father"--which they did not follow correctly, resulting in 2,000 years of discourse and the teachings of men who translated much of Jesus' words according to the flesh.
The first mistranslation according to the flesh, was that the "like manner" in which Jesus would return would be the manner of the flesh and His likeness as a man, rather than the likeness of the Father of whom He was going to. And even thought the scriptures are very clear that "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God"...after that first unbelief and misunderstanding of the spirit verses the flesh...here we are 50 generations later, siding with the flesh and against the Spirit.
But for those who would believe in God whom is spirit--it was always spirit, and if read that way, the understanding of what was and is to occur...is completely different.
So...what then is [actually] meant by Christ coming (or returning) "each in his own order?"
In the above passage (1 Corinthians 15:12-26) Paul refers to each group (the dead and those alive and remaining) as separate groups. Is that what he meant, that Christ would come to each group "each" in their "own order?" No, the words specifically mean each individual person "in his own order."
And yes, that means a lot of what most have been taught and wholeheartedly believe about the second coming--is false.
And unless you want to continue like Israel did after life and death was set before them, to eventually crucify Christ--you need to turn from following the flesh and the false teachers who were foretold to come in our times (2 Peter 2:1), make a change, and get inline with the spirit of God...it will be you against Christ, as Israel when He first came.
PS,
Paul was explaining, as will I.
The issue is when Christ comes (again).
The quotes below are from another thread, so as not to highjack that other thread, but to pick up at that point and give an answer. Here is the passage where the apostle Paul explains:
Now if Christ is preached that He has been raised from the dead, how do some among you say that there is no resurrection of the dead? 13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then Christ is not risen. 14 And if Christ is not risen, then our preaching is empty and your faith is also empty. 15 Yes, and we are found false witnesses of God, because we have testified of God that He raised up Christ, whom He did not raise up—if in fact the dead do not rise. 16 For if the dead do not rise, then Christ is not risen. 17 And if Christ is not risen, your faith is futile; you are still in your sins! 18 Then also those who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished. 19 If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men the most pitiable.
20 But now Christ is risen from the dead, and has become the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive. 23 But each one in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who are Christ’s at His coming. 24 Then comes the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father, when He puts an end to all rule and all authority and power. 25 For He must reign till He has put all enemies under His feet. 26 The last enemy that will be destroyed is death. 1 Corinthians 15:12-26
20 But now Christ is risen from the dead, and has become the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive. 23 But each one in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who are Christ’s at His coming. 24 Then comes the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father, when He puts an end to all rule and all authority and power. 25 For He must reign till He has put all enemies under His feet. 26 The last enemy that will be destroyed is death. 1 Corinthians 15:12-26
Most in all of Christendom for 2,000 years have not understood what Paul was saying. It is quite evident that there are many ways to explain away the truth--but this is unbelief. You see, if one says that "Christ has appeared to me", just as it is written:I don't know what you think that verse proves.
Christ hasn't returned yet.
1 Corinthians 15:23-24 shows that when He does:
-it is the end = contradicts your position that He has already come.
-He shall deliver the Kingdom to the Father = contradicts your position.
-He will have destroyed all sinners = contradicts your position.
-He will have destroyed death = contradicts your position.
-He will have destroyed ALL ENEMIES = contradicts your position.
Care to explain?
To those who eagerly wait for Him He will appear a second time, apart from sin, for salvation. Hebrews 9:28
...Or that knowing that Christ had first gone "to the Father", but has sense come "into me, and me in Him", rightfully counting it as a second time of His appearing...it cannot be said that He has come to all. In which case, most assume that He has not come again at all--which was also the confusion 2,000 years ago.
Such confusion could and should easily be explained using the example that Paul also gave of salvation referring to Adam, saying that "by the one man’s offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ." Meaning that just as all did not sin in one event with Adam--but each in his own order, the same would therefore also be true of salvation--which is note as the context of Paul's claim in Hebrews 9:28.
The problem is, that because Christ does not coming to all at once in the view of everyone else, everyone else assumes it never occurred...even though everyone whom Christ has come into and He in them, would never deny that He has come to them, effectively denying that He has in fact come again...which coming was just as He said, "quickly", "shortly", and with all power and glory of the Father, whom is "spirit." And that is the point of blindness resulting in unbelief: "spirit." Even though Jesus made it perfectly clear that "The words that I speak to you are spirit"...those born of the flesh are prone to believe against the spiritual truth of what is written. And then each passage that should confirm the spiritual truth, is also believed to mean something of the flesh.
The biggest occurred when Jesus asked Peter, “Who do men say that I, the Son of Man, am?” --Which, to the early church was not unlike Moses saying, "I have set before you life and death." It was a fork in the road--but this time, instead of being set before Israel, it was set before the church. Jesus then laid out two ways that could be taken: that His church might be upon "flesh and blood" or upon the spirit of "Father"--which they did not follow correctly, resulting in 2,000 years of discourse and the teachings of men who translated much of Jesus' words according to the flesh.
The first mistranslation according to the flesh, was that the "like manner" in which Jesus would return would be the manner of the flesh and His likeness as a man, rather than the likeness of the Father of whom He was going to. And even thought the scriptures are very clear that "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God"...after that first unbelief and misunderstanding of the spirit verses the flesh...here we are 50 generations later, siding with the flesh and against the Spirit.
But for those who would believe in God whom is spirit--it was always spirit, and if read that way, the understanding of what was and is to occur...is completely different.
So...what then is [actually] meant by Christ coming (or returning) "each in his own order?"
In the above passage (1 Corinthians 15:12-26) Paul refers to each group (the dead and those alive and remaining) as separate groups. Is that what he meant, that Christ would come to each group "each" in their "own order?" No, the words specifically mean each individual person "in his own order."
And yes, that means a lot of what most have been taught and wholeheartedly believe about the second coming--is false.
And unless you want to continue like Israel did after life and death was set before them, to eventually crucify Christ--you need to turn from following the flesh and the false teachers who were foretold to come in our times (2 Peter 2:1), make a change, and get inline with the spirit of God...it will be you against Christ, as Israel when He first came.
PS,
Specifically regarding the idea of 1 Corinthians 15:24 contradicting verse 23: No, there is no contradiction, but rather this means that "the end" comes "each in his own order." That is the point...and it is this statement of clarification from Paul that makes most people's understanding of when and how these events occur, completely contradictory to the truth--completely wrong.Sorry, that was supposed to be verse 23-24. I fixed it.
1 Corinthians 15:23-24
It still doesn't make sense that you claim ... verse 24 contradicts verse 23.
How does that work?
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