What is meant by Christ coming to "each in his own order."

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ScottA

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It is not a question.

Paul was explaining, as will I.

The issue is when Christ comes (again).

The quotes below are from another thread, so as not to highjack that other thread, but to pick up at that point and give an answer. Here is the passage where the apostle Paul explains:

Now if Christ is preached that He has been raised from the dead, how do some among you say that there is no resurrection of the dead? 13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then Christ is not risen. 14 And if Christ is not risen, then our preaching is empty and your faith is also empty. 15 Yes, and we are found false witnesses of God, because we have testified of God that He raised up Christ, whom He did not raise up—if in fact the dead do not rise. 16 For if the dead do not rise, then Christ is not risen. 17 And if Christ is not risen, your faith is futile; you are still in your sins! 18 Then also those who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished. 19 If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men the most pitiable.

20 But now Christ is risen from the dead, and has become the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive. 23 But each one in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who are Christ’s at His coming. 24 Then comes the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father, when He puts an end to all rule and all authority and power. 25 For He must reign till He has put all enemies under His feet. 26 The last enemy that will be destroyed is death.
1 Corinthians 15:12-26​

I don't know what you think that verse proves.

Christ hasn't returned yet.

1 Corinthians 15:23-24 shows that when He does:

-it is the end = contradicts your position that He has already come.
-He shall deliver the Kingdom to the Father = contradicts your position.
-He will have destroyed all sinners = contradicts your position.
-He will have destroyed death = contradicts your position.
-He will have destroyed ALL ENEMIES = contradicts your position.

Care to explain?
Most in all of Christendom for 2,000 years have not understood what Paul was saying. It is quite evident that there are many ways to explain away the truth--but this is unbelief. You see, if one says that "Christ has appeared to me", just as it is written:

To those who eagerly wait for Him He will appear a second time, apart from sin, for salvation. Hebrews 9:28

...Or that knowing that Christ had first gone "to the Father", but has sense come "into me, and me in Him", rightfully counting it as a second time of His appearing...it cannot be said that He has come to all. In which case, most assume that He has not come again at all--which was also the confusion 2,000 years ago.

Such confusion could and should easily be explained using the example that Paul also gave of salvation referring to Adam, saying that "by the one man’s offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ." Meaning that just as all did not sin in one event with Adam--but each in his own order, the same would therefore also be true of salvation--which is note as the context of Paul's claim in Hebrews 9:28.

The problem is, that because Christ does not coming to all at once in the view of everyone else, everyone else assumes it never occurred...even though everyone whom Christ has come into and He in them, would never deny that He has come to them, effectively denying that He has in fact come again...which coming was just as He said, "quickly", "shortly", and with all power and glory of the Father, whom is "spirit." And that is the point of blindness resulting in unbelief: "spirit." Even though Jesus made it perfectly clear that "The words that I speak to you are spirit"...those born of the flesh are prone to believe against the spiritual truth of what is written. And then each passage that should confirm the spiritual truth, is also believed to mean something of the flesh.

The biggest occurred when Jesus asked Peter, “Who do men say that I, the Son of Man, am?” --Which, to the early church was not unlike Moses saying, "I have set before you life and death." It was a fork in the road--but this time, instead of being set before Israel, it was set before the church. Jesus then laid out two ways that could be taken: that His church might be upon "flesh and blood" or upon the spirit of "Father"--which they did not follow correctly, resulting in 2,000 years of discourse and the teachings of men who translated much of Jesus' words according to the flesh.

The first mistranslation according to the flesh, was that the "like manner" in which Jesus would return would be the manner of the flesh and His likeness as a man, rather than the likeness of the Father of whom He was going to. And even thought the scriptures are very clear that "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God"...after that first unbelief and misunderstanding of the spirit verses the flesh...here we are 50 generations later, siding with the flesh and against the Spirit.

But for those who would believe in God whom is spirit--it was always spirit, and if read that way, the understanding of what was and is to occur...is completely different.

So...what then is [actually] meant by Christ coming (or returning) "each in his own order?"

In the above passage (1 Corinthians 15:12-26) Paul refers to each group (the dead and those alive and remaining) as separate groups. Is that what he meant, that Christ would come to each group "each" in their "own order?" No, the words specifically mean each individual person "in his own order."

And yes, that means a lot of what most have been taught and wholeheartedly believe about the second coming--is false.

And unless you want to continue like Israel did after life and death was set before them, to eventually crucify Christ--you need to turn from following the flesh and the false teachers who were foretold to come in our times (2 Peter 2:1), make a change, and get inline with the spirit of God...it will be you against Christ, as Israel when He first came.


PS,
Sorry, that was supposed to be verse 23-24. I fixed it.

1 Corinthians 15:23-24

It still doesn't make sense that you claim ... verse 24 contradicts verse 23.

How does that work?
Specifically regarding the idea of 1 Corinthians 15:24 contradicting verse 23: No, there is no contradiction, but rather this means that "the end" comes "each in his own order." That is the point...and it is this statement of clarification from Paul that makes most people's understanding of when and how these events occur, completely contradictory to the truth--completely wrong.
 
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GEN2REV

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It is not a question.

Paul was explaining, as will I.

The issue is when Christ comes (again).

The quotes below are from another thread, so as not to highjack that other thread, but to pick up at that point and give an answer. Here is the passage where the apostle Paul explains:

Now if Christ is preached that He has been raised from the dead, how do some among you say that there is no resurrection of the dead? 13 But if there is no resurrection of the dead, then Christ is not risen. 14 And if Christ is not risen, then our preaching is empty and your faith is also empty. 15 Yes, and we are found false witnesses of God, because we have testified of God that He raised up Christ, whom He did not raise up—if in fact the dead do not rise. 16 For if the dead do not rise, then Christ is not risen. 17 And if Christ is not risen, your faith is futile; you are still in your sins! 18 Then also those who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished. 19 If in this life only we have hope in Christ, we are of all men the most pitiable.

20 But now Christ is risen from the dead, and has become the firstfruits of those who have fallen asleep. 21 For since by man came death, by Man also came the resurrection of the dead. 22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive. 23 But each one in his own order: Christ the firstfruits, afterward those who are Christ’s at His coming. 24 Then comes the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God the Father, when He puts an end to all rule and all authority and power. 25 For He must reign till He has put all enemies under His feet. 26 The last enemy that will be destroyed is death.
1 Corinthians 15:12-26​


Most in all of Christendom for 2,000 years have not understood what Paul was saying. It is quite evident that there are many ways to explain away the truth--but this is unbelief. You see, if one says that "Christ has appeared to me", just as it is written:

To those who eagerly wait for Him He will appear a second time, apart from sin, for salvation. Hebrews 9:28

...Or that knowing that Christ had first gone "to the Father", but has sense come "into me, and me in Him", rightfully counting it as a second time of His appearing...it cannot be said that He has come to all. In which case, most assume that He has not come again at all--which was also the confusion 2,000 years ago.

Such confusion could and should easily be explained using the example that Paul also gave of salvation referring to Adam, saying that "by the one man’s offense death reigned through the one, much more those who receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ." Meaning that just as all did not sin in one event with Adam--but each in his own order, the same would therefore also be true of salvation--which is note as the context of Paul's claim in Hebrews 9:28.

The problem is, that because Christ does not coming to all at once in the view of everyone else, everyone else assumes it never occurred...even though everyone whom Christ has come into and He in them, would never deny that He has come to them, effectively denying that He has in fact come again...which coming was just as He said, "quickly", "shortly", and with all power and glory of the Father, whom is "spirit." And that is the point of blindness resulting in unbelief: "spirit." Even though Jesus made it perfectly clear that "The words that I speak to you are spirit"...those born of the flesh are prone to believe against the spiritual truth of what is written. And then each passage that should confirm the spiritual truth, is also believed to mean something of the flesh.

The biggest occurred when Jesus asked Peter, “Who do men say that I, the Son of Man, am?” --Which, to the early church was not unlike Moses saying, "I have set before you life and death." It was a fork in the road--but this time, instead of being set before Israel, it was set before the church. Jesus then laid out two ways that could be taken: that His church might be upon "flesh and blood" or upon the spirit of "Father"--which they did not follow correctly, resulting in 2,000 years of discourse and the teachings of men who translated much of Jesus' words according to the flesh.

The first mistranslation according to the flesh, was that the "like manner" in which Jesus would return would be the manner of the flesh and His likeness as a man, rather than the likeness of the Father of whom He was going to. And even thought the scriptures are very clear that "flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God"...after that first unbelief and misunderstanding of the spirit verses the flesh...here we are 50 generations later, siding with the flesh and against the Spirit.

But for those who would believe in God whom is spirit--it was always spirit, and if read that way, the understanding of what was and is to occur...is completely different.

So...what then is [actually] meant by Christ coming (or returning) "each in his own order?"

In the above passage (1 Corinthians 15:12-26) Paul refers to each group (the dead and those alive and remaining) as separate groups. Is that what he meant, that Christ would come to each group "each" in their "own order?" No, the words specifically mean each individual person "in his own order."

And yes, that means a lot of what most have been taught and wholeheartedly believe about the second coming--is false.

And unless you want to continue like Israel did after life and death was set before them, to eventually crucify Christ--you need to turn from following the flesh and the false teachers who were foretold to come in our times (2 Peter 2:1), make a change, and get inline with the spirit of God...it will be you against Christ, as Israel when He first came.


PS,

Specifically regarding the idea of 1 Corinthians 15:24 contradicting verse 23: No, there is no contradiction, but rather this means that "the end" comes "each in his own order." That is the point...and it is this statement of clarification from Paul that makes most people's understanding of when and how these events occur, completely contradictory to the truth--completely wrong.
The KJV simply references 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 as the explanation for 1 Corinthians 15:23.

That seems to contradict a lot of what you're saying here.

1 Cor. 15:22-23 basically says 'In Christ, all shall be made alive. Christ first, then those who belong to Christ when He returns.'

1 Thes. 4:15-17 basically says 'We which are still alive when Christ returns will not be taken up before those who are asleep (physically dead). Upon His return, the dead in Christ shall rise first, then we which are still alive at that time shall be caught up together with the dead in Christ to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we all (the dead in Christ and those of us who are still alive at His coming) ever be with the Lord.'

It doesn't speak of any individual experiences of Christ returning. And receiving the Holy Spirit is certainly not Christ returning.

And we also have this:
"... why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen Him go into heaven."
Acts 1:11

It seems simpler just as the Bible presents it. What you present just feels like it's all over the place.
 
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Enoch111

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It seems simpler just as the Bible presents it. What you present just feels like it's all over the place.
Agreed. "Each in his order" pertains to the three phases of the resurrection (1 Cor 15:22-24).

THE "FIRST RESURRECTION" IS STRICTLY FOR THE SAINTS
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. [Note: "all" applies to all the saints, not all mankind]

THERE IS AN ORDERLY PROGRESSION TO THE FIRST RESURRECTION
23 But every man in his own order: [1] Christ the firstfruits; [2] afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. [Note: Just as there were three phases to the Hebrew harvest, there are three phases in the first resurrection as seen below]

THE "END" IS THE COMPLETION OF THE REIGN OF CHRIST
24 [3] Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

PHASE I: The resurrection of Christ (as the First Fruits on the morrow after the Sabbath)

PHASE II: The Pre-Tribulation Resurrection/Rapture of the Church (the main harvest)

PHASE III: The resurrection of the Tribulation saints before the Millennium (the gleanings)
 
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amigo de christo

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JESUS IS COMING for the lambs . What a wonderful home awaits those who are His .
Be watching , for no one knows the day nor hour HE does come .
As john once said , EVEN SO COME LORD JESUS .
Our home awaits us . Till then armour up cause this world will only hate us more and more and specially
in these days . Fear not man . JUST REMEMBER OUR HOME IS WITH THE LORD and we have a GOOD END .
Endure faithful to the end . Now hands up , cause ITS LORD PRAISING and LORD THANKING TIME .
 

GEN2REV

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Agreed. "Each in his order" pertains to the three phases of the resurrection (1 Cor 15:22-24).
Does the Bible say anything specifically about 3 phases of the resurrection?
THE "FIRST RESURRECTION" IS STRICTLY FOR THE SAINTS
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. [Note: "all" applies to all the saints, not all mankind]
I understand Rev. 20 refers to a "First Resurrection", but since there is no other scripture anywhere in the Bible that supports this, it can't be maintained as a viable doctrine. There is only one resurrection and John 5:28-29 tells us that 'all' who are in the graves shall come forth at Jesus' return. They are resurrected in the same hour, some to 'life' and some to 'damnation.'

THE "END" IS THE COMPLETION OF THE REIGN OF CHRIST
24 [3] Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
The end is the end of Christ's Reign upon the earth because it is the end of the earth and the end of all sinners. If the saints are caught up with Christ, the sinners are destroyed and the earth is gone, how can there be a Millennium after that point?
1 Thessalonians 4:17
Isaiah 13:9-11
2 Thessalonians 1:7-9
2 Peter 3:10-11
 

quietthinker

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What is meant by Christ coming to "each in his own order."
Some sleep with pigs, others with Princes
 

Enoch111

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Does the Bible say anything specifically about 3 phases of the resurrection?
Of course it does. Christ's resurrection was in AD 30. The Resurrection/Rapture could be anytime, even within the next 10 years. The Tribulation would be later. If that does not tell you of three phases, then nothing will. The very fact that Christ is called "the First Fruits" means that the main harvest must come later, and the gleanings must come even later.
 

GEN2REV

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The very fact that Christ is called "the First Fruits" means that the main harvest must come later, and the gleanings must come even later.
:)

So because the Bible says that Christ is the First Fruits, that somehow means that there will be two additional resurrections ... and also indicates, within those three words - mind you, that there will be much time in between each.

Ok, Enoch.

That makes sense because that is what it would take for many of these crazy unbiblical doctrines to be put together. Instead of reading scripture as it is written, people read into scripture what they want it to say ... and what clearly isn't there at all.

God love 'em. :)
 

ScottA

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The KJV simply references 1 Thessalonians 4:15-17 as the explanation for 1 Corinthians 15:23.

That seems to contradict a lot of what you're saying here.

1 Cor. 15:22-23 basically says 'In Christ, all shall be made alive. Christ first, then those who belong to Christ when He returns.'

1 Thes. 4:15-17 basically says 'We which are still alive when Christ returns will not be taken up before those who are asleep (physically dead). Upon His return, the dead in Christ shall rise first, then we which are still alive at that time shall be caught up together with the dead in Christ to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we all (the dead in Christ and those of us who are still alive at His coming) ever be with the Lord.'

It doesn't speak of any individual experiences of Christ returning. And receiving the Holy Spirit is certainly not Christ returning.

And we also have this:
"... why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen Him go into heaven."
Acts 1:11

It seems simpler just as the Bible presents it. What you present just feels like it's all over the place.
Yes, it does seem simpler...that is why it is so commonly misunderstood. But that does not mean that Paul was not correct in saying that it was "each" individually. That was his clarification because of confusion, that it is not as it may seem.

But let's break it down. The misunderstanding that is the cause of the confusion that has been since this was all revealed, is that most do not perceive that just as things have unfolded to each individual since Adam until Christ, they also refold to each individual beginning with Christ the firstfruits until the fulness of the gentiles is complete: as all from one man, to all again becoming One man in Christ. Which is to say, that just as each man lives and dies "in his own order", so also does each die to self and come to life in Christ "in his own order."

The other misunderstanding, is just what is meant by "the dead in Christ" and "the living in Christ." The definition is not death or life as men define death and life, but as God has defined it--which is defined in Christ.

Jesus is the First and the Last, and the Beginning and the End. We know this...but why is it even stated. It is stated as such for the unfolding and the refolding--of the two "folds" that Christ must bring to the Father. It is for this reason that I have referred to it as unfolding and refolding.

So then, how are we first unfolded? --We are unfolded since Adam, born of the flesh. Likewise, we are refolded since Christ the firstfruits since Jesus, the first born of the Spirit. Which means death and life could simply be defined as all who are born of women, except that God has defined it placing Christ in the middle--meaning that by God's defining, it was Israel which as the first fold representing the dead of whom Jesus was the First and the Last...and the second fold is the gentiles who make up the church as "living stones" of whom Jesus is the Beginning and the End...and being between the two, He is also the chief Cornerstone or Capstone.

Therefore, this is the biblical definition: "The dead in Christ" is Israel (as representational of all who are born of the flesh), and "the living in Christ" are those since Christ who are born again of the spirit of God (representing life in Christ in God).

Have I left anything in question?
 
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Desire Of All Nations

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Matt. 24:30 contradicts the theology you're trying to sell because Christ said that everyone will see Him when He returns for the second time. Most professing Christians have misunderstood Paul's words concerning Jesus' return, but the fact remains that the scriptures say that Jesus will only return 1 time.
 
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GEN2REV

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Yes, it does seem simpler...that is why it is so commonly misunderstood. But that does not mean that Paul was not correct in saying that it was "each" individually. That was his clarification because of confusion, that it is not as it may seem.
Paul did not say it was each one "individually", Scott. You are adding that to the scripture. Even if He had said that, He still meant that each one would fall into one of the 'two' categories. Still alive or dead in Christ. That's it. That is the order the Bible presents.

Anything you add to that, or any opinion of yours, with lengthy description aside from scripture, is just extra-biblical description.

The Bible is clear and it backs up the very point that I'm presenting with other passages to make it irrefutable for those who handle it honestly.
 
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ScottA

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Paul did not say it was each one "individually", Scott. You are adding that to the scripture. Even if He had said that, He still meant that each one would fall into one of the 'two' categories. Still alive or dead in Christ. That's it. That is the order the Bible presents.

Anything you add to that, or any opinion of yours, with lengthy description aside from scripture, is just extra-biblical description.

The Bible is clear and it backs up the very point that I'm presenting with other passages to make it irrefutable for those who handle it honestly.
No...look up the words in the original language--that is exactly what "each" means. I added nothing.

But, yes, there are two "categories" or groups, (I said it, and now you have said it). Yet, "each in his own" stipulates just how Christ comes to each group "individually" or personally.

All scripture is required, not just part; and interpretations can be, and often are, wrong. The shame of misinterpretation is not yours...just look it up.

This is the revelation of "all truth"...just as it is written of our time.

PS, here:
  1. pertaining to one's self, one's own, belonging to one's self
Strong’s Definitions G2398
ἴδιος ídios, id'-ee-os; of uncertain affinity; pertaining to self, i.e. one's own; by implication, private or separate:—X his acquaintance, when they were alone, apart, aside, due, his (own, proper, several), home, (her, our, thine, your) own (business), private(-ly), proper, severally, their (own).​
 
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michaelvpardo

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Does the Bible say anything specifically about 3 phases of the resurrection?
I understand Rev. 20 refers to a "First Resurrection", but since there is no other scripture anywhere in the Bible that supports this, it can't be maintained as a viable doctrine. There is only one resurrection and John 5:28-29 tells us that 'all' who are in the graves shall come forth at Jesus' return. They are resurrected in the same hour, some to 'life' and some to 'damnation.'

The end is the end of Christ's Reign upon the earth because it is the end of the earth and the end of all sinners. If the saints are caught up with Christ, the sinners are destroyed and the earth is gone, how can there be a Millennium after that point?
1 Thessalonians 4:17
Isaiah 13:9-11
2 Thessalonians 1:7-9
2 Peter 3:10-11
Paul taught the first resurrection to the Thessalonian church.

16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus we shall always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore comfort one another with these words. 1 Thessalonians 4:16-18
In context Paul was trying to reassure the Thessalonians that the resurrection hadn't happened yet, or that those who had died wouldn't somehow miss it.

13 But I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep, lest you sorrow as others who have no hope. 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who sleep in Jesus.
15 For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep.
1 Thessalonians 4:13-15
 

Waiting on him

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No...look up the words in the original language--that is exactly what "each" means. I added nothing.

But, yes, there are two "categories" or groups, (I said it, and now you have said it). Yet, "each in his own" stipulates just how Christ comes to each group "individually" or personally.

All scripture is required, not just part; and interpretations can be, and often are, wrong. The shame of misinterpretation is not yours...just look it up.

This is the revelation of "all truth"...just as it is written of our time.

PS, here:
  1. pertaining to one's self, one's own, belonging to one's self
Strong’s Definitions G2398
ἴδιος ídios, id'-ee-os; of uncertain affinity; pertaining to self, i.e. one's own; by implication, private or separate:—X his acquaintance, when they were alone, apart, aside, due, his (own, proper, several), home, (her, our, thine, your) own (business), private(-ly), proper, severally, their (own).​
There really no difference between modern day futurist and apostate Israel of the first century, or even the orthodox self proclaimed Jews of this time.
 
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GEN2REV

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Paul taught the first resurrection to the Thessalonian church.

16 For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of an archangel, and with the trumpet of God. And the dead in Christ will rise first. 17 Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air. And thus we shall always be with the Lord. 18 Therefore comfort one another with these words. 1 Thessalonians 4:16-18
In context Paul was trying to reassure the Thessalonians that the resurrection hadn't happened yet, or that those who had died wouldn't somehow miss it.

13 But I do not want you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning those who have fallen asleep, lest you sorrow as others who have no hope. 14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who sleep in Jesus.
15 For this we say to you by the word of the Lord, that we who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord will by no means precede those who are asleep.
1 Thessalonians 4:13-15
But he's only teaching them about 'a' resurrection; the resurrection.

He doesn't mention anything at all about it being the first or that there will be any others to come thereafter.
 

michaelvpardo

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But he's only teaching them about 'a' resurrection; the resurrection.

He doesn't mention anything at all about it being the first or that there will be any others to come thereafter.
But Revelation 20:4-6 confirms the first resurrection, the resurrection of the just, those that perish in Christ, Cleansed by His blood.
4 Then I saw thrones, and seated on them were those to whom the authority to judge was committed. Also I saw the souls of those who had been beheaded for the testimony of Jesus and for the word of God, and those who had not worshiped the beast or its image and had not received its mark on their foreheads or their hands. They came to life and reigned with Christ for a thousand years. 5 The rest of the dead did not come to life until the thousand years were ended. This is the first resurrection. 6 Blessed and holy is the one who shares in the first resurrection! Over such the second death has no power, but they will be priests of God and of Christ, and they will reign with him for a thousand years. Revelation 20:4-6

Revelation 7:13-14 identifies those in white as saved by the blood of the Lamb. Eg. The church
13 Then one of the elders addressed me, saying, “Who are these, clothed in white robes, and from where have they come?” 14 I said to him, “Sir, you know.” And he said to me, “These are the ones coming out of the great tribulation. They have washed their robes and made them white in the blood of the Lamb. Revelation 7:13-14