No confusion on my part. "Faith only" or "faith alone" in James 2:24 is talking about an
empty profession of faith/dead faith that remains alone - "barren of works" (James 2:14) so your argument is moot about being justified/accounted as righteous/saved by works and Romans 4:2-6 blows your argument right out of the water!
You just don't get it. (1 Corinthians 2:14)
So you reject the multiple meanings of the word "justified" from Greek dictionaries?
Strong's #1344: dikaioo (pronounced dik-ah-yo'-o)
from 1342; to render (i.e. show or regard as) just or innocent:--free, justify(-ier), be righteous.
Thayer's Greek Lexicon:
dikaioō
1) to render righteous or such he ought to be
2)
to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
3) to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be
https://www.bibletools.org/index.cfm/fuseaction/Lexicon.show/ID/G1344/dikaioo.htm
Examples in scripture of justified meaning shown to be righteous:
In Matthew 12:37, we read - "For by your words you will be
justified, and by your words you will be condemned." This is because our words (and our works) reveal the condition of our hearts. Words/works are evidences for, or against being in a state of righteousness. (Luke 6:45 - A good man out of the good treasure of his heart brings forth good; and an evil man out of the evil treasure of his heart brings forth evil. For
out of the abundance of the heart his mouth speaks.)
God is said to have been
justified by those who were baptized by John the Baptist (Luke 7:29). This act pronounced or declared God to be righteous. It did not make him righteous. The basis or ground for the pronouncement was the fact that God IS righteous. Notice that the NIV reads,
"acknowledged that God's way was right.." The ESV reads,
"they declared God just.." This is the sense in which God was justified, "shown to be righteous". According to your "broad brushed" definition of "justified" God would have been "accounted as righteous."
Matthew 11:19 "The Son of Man came eating and drinking, and they say, 'Behold, a gluttonous man and a drunkard, a friend of tax-gatherers and sinners!' Yet wisdom is
justified/vindicated/shown to be right by her deeds."
I did not say that and neither did James. Genuine saving faith will result in producing works (although we are still saved through faith and not by works). All genuine believers are fruitful, yet not all are equally fruitful.
It's perfect harmony and you see a contradiction because apparently you don't understand that James is talking about an empty profession of faith/dead faith and not genuine saving faith in James 2:14 which sets the stage for James 2:24.
Good grief!

It's like you are not hearing a word I say. Works are not part of the salvation equation of saved by grace through faith, NOT WORKS. (Ephesians 2:8,9) Yet you say faith AND WORKS.
Romans 4:2-6 and Ephesians 2:8,9 continues to go right over your head as you continue to get out your shoe horn and try to "shoe horn" works "into" salvation through faith, not works. God imputes righteousness APART FROM WORKS, but you say with works. Man is saved through faith apart from the merit of works, (Romans 4:2-6) yet genuine saving faith in Christ does not remain apart from the presence of works. (James 2:14-24) I'm not sure how I can make that any clearer.
So Christ only "initially" saves us then we do the rest? You obviously don't believe Romans 4:2-3. You believe what works-salvationists teach, which once again is very telling and disturbing.
Secondary imputation? This is
"type 2 works salvation" and I have heard a similar argument from Roman Catholics and other works-salvationists. You are not in good company!
More surface reading on your part that further leads to
"type 2 works salvation." What a mess!