I understand that’s what trinitarianism teaches. We can locate the source of the teaching in Church history. It comes to us from the Catholic Church. To believe it is to believe what the Catholic Church teaches.
Do you agree or disagree with that?
(Yes the true church founded by Christ on Peter and the Apostles and their successors)
Council of Chalcedon. The doctrine of the hypostatic union.
You told me recently that you use two translations for apologetics - KJV and Wycliffe, if I’m remembering correctly.
“And David said to all the congregation, Now bless the LORD your God. And all the congregation blessed the LORD God of their fathers, and bowed down their heads, and worshipped the LORD, and the king.”
(1 Chronicles 29:20, KJV)
The people are worshipping God and the king.
“Soothly David commanded to all the church, that is, (to) all the people gathered together, Bless ye the Lord our God. And all the church, that is, the people, blessed the Lord God of their fathers, and they bowed themselves, and worshipped God, and [then] afterward the king. (And David commanded to all the congregation, Bless ye the Lord your God. And all the congregation blessed the Lord God of their fathers, and they bowed themselves, and worshipped God, and then the king.)”
(1 Chronicles 29:20, WYC)
The people are worshipping God and the king.
WYC uses the word “church”. Do you believe this is the Roman Catholic Church? Do you believe the people are Roman Catholics? Do you believe the people are worshipping the Trinity and the king?
(It don’t say what king, God is also the eternal king)
Are you familiar with the concept of ideal preexistence, also known as notional preexistence?
(No)
I commented on this verse recently in another thread. I called upon my favorite Catholic scholar, Raymond E. Brown. In his book, Jesus God And Man, he has a section titled “II. TEXTS WHERE THE USE OF ‘GOD’ FOR JESUS IS DUBIOUS”. There are two subsections under this heading. The first subsection is titled “A. Passages with textual variants” and the second subsection is titled “B. Passages where obscurity arises from syntax”. Titus 2:13 is discussed in the second subsection. After discussing the syntax options, Brown concludes “It is unfortunate that that no certainty can be reached here …” (p. 18).
I would appeal to the syntax option which fits with Jewish monotheism, which seems sound to me in light of the fact (which you’ve disputed) that Jesus is a Jew (not a Roman Catholic, as you believe him to be) but you wouldn’t find it persuasive. If you’re on top of your game you would point out to me (or remind me) that there are syntax issues with the passage, and therefore I couldn’t claim with certainty that the option I think is best settles the matter.
Staying with Brown, there is a section in his book titled “TEXTS WHERE JESUS IS CLEARLY CALLED GOD”. Hebrews 1:8 is discussed in this section. He points out that the author of Hebrews is quoting Psalm 45:6-7. I agree with his conclusion that Jesus is clearly called elohim (Heb.) / theos (Gk.) / “God”.
Still staying with Brown, 2 Peter 1:1 falls under the same subheading in his book as Titus 2:13. See my comments above on Titus 2:13 concerning available options.
That aside, God has given Jesus all power and authority (28:18). He possesses, and uses, that divine power, which he has been given to him by his Father, for the purpose Peter describes in the passage.
(Given to his human nature, he already has all authority in his divine nature)