so curious how does one know they interpreting what is being said in tongues the right thing. next why should one speak in tongues then someone interpret what was said . i have been in meetings like this personally i got nothing out of it. i am not against tongues /other languages... but i have to wonder is the tongues used today .the same Bibibcal tongues spoke in the Bible. if one wants pray in tongues so be it
It would be difficult to state if the tongues today are the same as in the 1st century, I would assume so but that is not my department … that one belongs to God.
The most common misunderstanding of interpretation is ….how does the interpretation take place?
Due to the wording in the KJV it has been understood that someone else other than the one who is speaking in tongues, interprets….
that is not the case. The person who is speaking in tongues is the one who should be interpreting…. Which is the sum and substance of the tongues spoken…. If in a group meeting someone else interprets (and I know it does happen with some groups) it is either someone giving prophecy (edification, exhortation, and or comfort) or it s being faked.
Following are the verses that have caused some confusion.
I Cor 14
14:1 Follow after charity, and desire spiritual “gifts”, but rather that ye may prophesy.
14:12 Even so ye, forasmuch as ye are zealous of spiritual “gifts”, seek that ye may excel to the edifying of the church.
First …get rid of the word ➡
gifts ⬅ in verses
1 and verse
14. It was added by translators there is no corresponding Greek word for that.
The word “
spiritual” in verse 1 is the Greek word (
pneumatikos) meaning “that which belongs to, is determined by, influenced by, or proceeds from the spirit” (spiritual matters). Tongues, interpretation, and prophecy are a manifestation of the spirit,
they are not gifts…. they are an evidence of the gift of holy spirit that you were given at the new birth. (For a more detailed explanation see this site →
Tongues)
14:13 Wherefore let
him that speaketh in an unknown tongue pray that
he may interpret.
To “pray that he may interpret” is not pray for interpretation, but rather pray that you believe to interpret. You are already equipped with the gift of holy spirit …..which means you can operate any and all of the 9 manifestation, but if you don’t believe you can, …….pray to God that you have the confidence to accept what he has already made available to you.
Note also that verse 13 states except
he interpret….
not someone else. We have to follow grammatical structure, which applies to both Greek and English. When “
he” applies to the person speaking we cannot change the rules of application to suite our beliefs. In order for this to reference a totally different person, it would have to read, in the third person,
they …the same applies in verse 14:5 also.
14:27 If any man speak in an
unknown tongue,
let it be by two, or at the most
by three, and
that by course (order) and let
one (heis) interpret.
The Greek text employs the word
heis for →
one ….. meaning “
the one in the same”
not someone else which would be (
hen)
(Other examples of “
heis” are in Luke_12:52; Romans_3:30
14:28 But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
The word
no in verse 28 is the Greek word
mē, which is a conditional negation
, depending on feeling, as opposed to the Greek word
ou which would be a full and direct negation not depending on any condition, expressed or implied; based on fact.
ou is objective….
mē is subjective. If we were talking about someone else, (an interpreter not being there to interpret the tongues,) the word
no would have to be
ou, but it is not. The word for
no in this verse is
mē, and it referring to the person who may lack the will, or desire to interpret.