"You are still trying to split the Law into two parts. It was not. It was one. They were all God’s laws to the Jews. And they were a mixture of what were referred to variously as commandments, ordinances and statutes, all mixed up. They were not neatly separated."
It is in two parts. You remember, how you stated that "God's Eternal Law was before the Old Covenant," as I stated as well? God's Eternal Law, was written in stone. The 10 Commandments, His perfect law, IS His Eternal Law. This Law, remains in Heaven, and shall be obeyed throughout eternity. God did give certain laws to the Jews, but just because He gave them the 10 Commandments, doesn't mean this was only for the Jews. Can you search the scriptures, and find all 10 Commandments explicitly stated before written down in stone? Can you find "Thou shalt not steal" or "Thou shalt not take the name of the Lord in vain"? But we know these things are wrong to do, and are contained within God's 10 Commandments.
Sorry but your analysis is wrong.
Yes, the Eternal Law existed before God gave it to the Jews, but that does not mean that when God gave the Law to the Jews he gave them two sets of laws.
God gave them one Law. It included his Eternal moral law, ceremonial laws, decrees, statutes etc. When a country revises it’s constitutions, or implements a new one it will incorporate laws from a previous one plus new ones. That does not mean the country has two sets of laws. The origin of the laws does not stop there being one law for that country. People just refer to the Law, just as the Jews referred to the Law, meaning all of it. There are more (Eternal) moral laws than are in the 10 Commandments, for example sodomy, fraud and fornication.
Jesus refers to Moses giving the law:
“Moses said, Honour thy father and thy mother” (Mt 7:10) – one of the Ten Commandments.
Also
“Did not Moses give you the law, and yet none of you keepeth the law? Why go ye about to kill me?” (Jn 7:19)
Jesus here refers to one of the 10 Commandments as the law given by Moses.
"And keep the charge of the LORD thy God, to walk in his ways, to keep his statutes, and his commandments, and his judgments, and his testimonies, as it is written in the law of Moses" (1Kg 2:3).
God’s commandments are written in the book of Moses.
You are trying to make a distinction between God’s Laws and Moses’ Laws, between the 10 Commandments and other of God’s commandments that are not made in scripture.
Another indication that the Sabbath Day is not part of the Eternal Law is given in Mt 12;5:
“Or have ye not read in the law, how that on the sabbath days the priests in the temple profane the sabbath, and are blameless?”
If the Sabbath were an Eternal moral law the priests could not be blameless.
Before Moses re-listed the Ten Commandments in Deut 5 referred to them as statutes and judgements:
“Hear, O Israel, the statutes and judgments which I speak in your ears this day” (vs 1)
Moreover in verse 2&3 (remember this is before he lists the !0 Commandments) Moses says:
The LORD our God made a covenant with us in Horeb. The LORD made not this covenant with our fathers, but with us, even us, who are all of us here alive this day.
If God did not make this covenant with the 10 Commandments with their forefather how could Noah, Abraham etc. know about the Sabbath day?
However, you can find the Creator, resting the Sabbath Day in creation week. Now, there being more evidence that this commandment was kept in Genesis, how can we assume this commandment was never kept until Israel?
God did not rest on the Sabbath Day. He rested on the 7th day – that particular 7th day. There is no record that he rested every 7th day or that he called it the Sabbath Day. That is an invention of Sabbatarians. There is no record that he asked anyone to rest every 7th day before he gave those instructions to Moses.
"Firstly, the Jews did not divide the Law up into two parts. It was ONE"
That's not what Leviticus 23:23-38 says. In Leviticus 23:37, Moses says "These are the feasts..." When explaining the 5 annual sabbaths they were to keep. Then Moses says in verse 38, that those annual sabbaths are "besides the Sabbaths of the Lord". So yes, the Sabbath of the Lord thy God, was different, than the yearly sabbaths Israel was to keep. The "Sabbath of the Lord thy God" points back to creation week. It points back to the Creator. The annual sabbaths pointed forward, to the cross.
Leviticus 23 is not dividing up the Law. It is explaining and expanding it.
Note that chapter 23 of Leviticus is introduced as concerning “the feasts of the Lord” (vs 2 & 4). All the feasts are feasts of the Lord
“Also in the fifteenth day of the seventh month, when ye have gathered in the fruit of the land, ye shall keep a feast unto the LORD seven days: on the first day shall be a sabbath, and on the eighth day shall be a sabbath.” (vs 39).
There were many Sabbaths – all feasts of the Lord.
"Thirdly James does not mention the Ten Commandments or call them the “law of liberty”. How you arrive at that I cannot imagine."
James says the Royal Law according to scripture is "Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself". Jesus also says this is one of the two great commandments on which the law and the prophets hang. But what's it mean to love thy neighbor as thyself? Romans 13:9 - [sup] [/sup]For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.
Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself is a brief comprehension of the COMMANDMENTS. The 10 commandments - Thou shalt not commit adultary, nor steal, nor kill, nor covet, nor bear false witness - and if there is ANY OTHER COMMANDMENT, it is comprehended as mainly "Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself".
James 2:8,10,11,12 - If ye fulful the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well: For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For he that said Do not commit adultery (A commandment), said also, Do not kill (Another Commandment). Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.
James calls the Royal Law, the 10 commandments, the LAW OF LIBERTY.
James does not call the 10 Commandments the Royal Law. He calls “love they neighbour as thyself” the “Royal Law – and that is from Leviticus 19 not the 10 Commandments.
"You will find all the other commandments clearly “restated” in the New Testament...But nowhere in the NT are we instructed to keep the Sabbath."
Yes, you will, in Hebrews 4:4-9. It says God spake of the seventh day on this wise. It then reminds us, of how God kept the seventh day Sabbath.
Sorry, but that is an invention. The word Sabbath is not used. God rested on the seventh day of creation. Nowhere does it say that day was called a Sabbath day.
Interestingly the KJV which you uses does not use the word sabbath in Heb 4 at all!!!!!
Other translations only use it in Heb 4:9, and then only as Sabbath rest not Sabbath day
It also says "he limiteth a certain day." Then verse 8 asks, "For if Jesus had given them rest, wouldn't he not afterward have spoken of another day." All Christians I come across will openly declare, that YES Jesus DOES in fact give us rest. So then, would he not have afterward spoken of another day? No person, can find Jesus teaching a Sunday Sabbath, or an "everyday Sabbath". Jesus quite boldly taught His brethern how to keep the Sabbath correctly. He also kept the Sabbath. By His life's perfect example, NEVER did he indicate in the Sabbath being done away with. Remember not a jot or tittle would change. And also, in Matthew 24:20 Jesus says pray that you won't have to take flight on the sabbath DAY. So, back to Hebrews, in verse 9 says there REMAINETH (which gives an indication that there is STILL IN PLACE) a rest to the people of God.
You misconstrue this possibly because the syntax of the KJV is difficult to follow.
He is making the point that the people of the OT did not enter his rest because of unbelief (vs 2).
But he says (vs 3) “we which have believed do enter into rest”. Of course we do because Jesus promised “Come unto me, all ye that labour and are heavy laden, and I will give you rest”, and I believe Jesus keeps his promises.
However this rest is not the final rest because we are still on this fallen earth. The final rest, the one yet to come is our rest with the Father, Son and Holy Spirit in heaven.
“And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.” (Rev 21:4).
It is that rest that Hebrews refers to in Heb 4:9
But let's look at the underlined word rest - In Strong's exhaustive Concordance, that word rest is originally the Greek word SABBATISMOS - which means, a keeping Sabbath. So yes, quite clearly, and boldly, specifically laying out the 7th Day, as the Day of rest, and laying out that it is LIMITED to a certain day, Paul then says there REMAINS (still in place) a SABBATH KEEPING REST to God's children.
It says nothing clearly and boldly.
Strong’s Exhaustive Concordance
From a derivative of sabbaton; a "sabbatism", i.e. (figuratively) the repose of Christianity (as a type of heaven) -- rest.
Thayer’s Greek Lexicon
1. a keeping sabbath.
2. the blessed rest from toils and troubles looked for in the age
No translation that I have consulted (and I have looked at many) translate sabbatismos as a “keeping sabbath”.
The word sabbatismos does not come from sabbaton, but from sabbatiamoe (the former being neuter and the latter masculine). The English sabbath always comes from sabbaton. Sabbatismos is therefore a different kind of rest to the sabbath rest. It is the heavenly rest that we are all labouring to enter.
You still haven't replied to the scriptures I quoted about us no longer being under the law
"In the same way, my brothers, you also were put to death to the law through the body of Christ, so that you might belong to another, to the one who was raised from the dead in order that we might bear fruit for God. For when we were in the flesh, our sinful passions, awakened by the law, worked in our members to bear fruit for death. But now we are released from the law, dead to what held us captive, so that we may serve in the newness of the spirit and not under the obsolete letter." (Rom 7:6-6)
We are put to death to the Law
We are released from the Law
"Before faith came, we were held in custody under law, confined for the faith that was to be revealed. Consequently, the law was our disciplinarian for Christ, that we might be justified by faith. But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a disciplinarian." (Gal 3:23-25).
We are not under the Law
"When there is a change of priesthood, there is necessarily a change of law as well." (Heb 7:12)
"For if that first covenant had been faultless, no place would have been sought for a second one. But he finds fault with them and says: “Behold, the days are coming, says the Lord, when I will conclude a new covenant with the house of Israel and the house of Judah." (Heb 8:7-8)
"When he speaks of a “new” covenant, he declares the first one obsolete. And what has become obsolete and has grown old is close to disappearing" (Heb 8:13)
"He takes away the first to establish the second" (Heb 10:9)
We are now living under the New Law of the New Covenant. This New Law is written on our hearts. Hebrews 8:8-10 quotes Jeremiah 31:31-33:
Remember:
“Cursed be everyone who does not persevere in doing all the things written in the book of the law.” (Gal 3:10).
If you put yourself back under the law then you are putting yourself under a curse if you disobey even on part of the law.