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John_8:32

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Nov 9, 2012
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I said almost 100 percent sure. Why does your quote of me, say zero percent?
Dunno, I simply hit the quote button to reply and that is how it came out. I didn't notice at the time.
 

williemac

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John_8:32 said:
Well, let's just see why...

Gal 4:3 Even so we, when we were children, were in bondage under the elements of the world:

We all know that the Ten Commandments were spoken by God on Mt. Sinai and were not elements of the world.

Gal 4:4 But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,
Gal 4:5 To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons.

What does it mean to be redeemed?

redeemed:

G1805
ἐξαγοράζω
exagorazō
ex-ag-or-ad'-zo
From G1537 and G59; to buy up, that is, ransom; figuratively to rescue from loss (improve opportunity): - redeem.

Christ did this by dying for us, He paid the price, shed His blood for our guilt.

Gal 4:6 And because ye are sons, God hath sent forth the Spirit of his Son into your hearts, crying, Abba, Father.
Gal 4:7 Wherefore thou art no more a servant, but a son; and if a son, then an heir of God through Christ.

We are no longer children of the Devil or the world, no longer servants of the world, rather sons and heirs of God thanks to Christ.

Gal 4:8 Howbeit then, {b]when ye knew not God, ye did service unto them which by nature are no gods.

So, prior to their calling to the truth, they served false gods that were no gods.

Gal 4:9 But now, after that ye have known God, or rather are known of God, how turn ye again to the weak and beggarly elements, whereunto ye desire again to be in bondage?

Paul was admonishing them for returning to the false beliefs that they held prior to conversion, such as...

Gal 4:10 Ye observe days, and months, and times, and years.

The Diaglott has it as this...

Gal 4:3 So also we, when we were children, under the rudiments of the world we were having been enslaved;
Gal 4:8 But then indeed, not knowing God, you were enslaved to those by nature not being gods;
Gal 4:9 now but, having know God, more and having been known by God, how do you turn back again to the weak and poor rudiments, to which again as at first be in subjection you wish?
Gal 4:10 Days you watch narrowly? and moons and seasons and years?

From Bullingers...

Gal 4:3 So we also, when we were children, were enslaved under the elementary rules of the world:

Galatians 4:3

Even so we = So we also.

in bondage = enslaved. Greek. douloo App-190.

elements = elementary rules. Greek. stoicheion. Here, Gal_4:9. Col_2:8, Col_2:20. Heb_5:12. 2Pe_3:10, 2Pe_3:12. Compare Rom_2:14, Rom_2:15.

world. Greek. kosmos. App-129.

In every case the word elements (rudiments) means the beginning principles. The beginning principles of what?

Gal 4:3 So we also, when we were children, were enslaved under the elementary rules of the world]:

Bullingers App-129:

App-129

Companion Bible
Appendix #129
129. THE SYNONYMOUS WORDS FOR

"WORLD", "EARTH", ETC.

There are four Greek words which are thus translated; and it is most important that they should be, in each occurrence, carefully distinguished. They are as follows :--
1. kosmos = the world as created, ordered, and arranged. Hence it is used in the LXX for the Heb. word rendered "ornament". See Exo_33:5; Exo_33:6. Isa_49:18. Jer_4:30. Eze_7:20, &c. It denotes the opposite of what man has called "chaos", which God never created. See notes on Isa_45:18 and Gen_1:2 : for the Heb. bara' means not only to create, but that what was created was beautiful. The root, meaning to carve, plane, polish, implies both order and beauty. Cp. Ap. 146.

So we are talking about the rudimentary principles of the worldly society around us.

If you are going to lift verses out of context and twist them, be careful...

2Pe 3:15 And account that the longsuffering of our Lord is salvation; even as our beloved brother Paul also according to the wisdom given to him wrote to you;
2Pe 3:16 As in all his epistles also, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable strain, as they do [in] the other Scriptures also, unto their own destruction.
This explanation is bogus, my friend. What I see in it is a classic bit of slight of hand. In the first place, I can't help but notice that when you went to the Diaglot, you managed to omit vs.4,5,6,7, from the quote. So what do these verses mention? The fact that God came to redeem they who were born under the law. Context!!
The broader context in this letter is the subject that paul wrote the letter for in the first place. He was grieved to say the least, that they were willing to be circumcised, signifying their agreement to keep the law as part of their covenant with God. Paul wrote a letter of harsh correction concerning this. Do we somehow accept then, that he is going to change the subject without warning in a few sentences, and then head back to the subject afterward?

Let's look a little further into this chapter and I will show you what I mean. In vs.22, Paul mentions the two sons born of Abraham; the one being from the bondwoman and the other from the freewoman. Hmm, there's that word again. (bondage). In vs. 24, he reveals that these two are symbolic of the two covenants...now get this...."one from Mount Sinai, WHICH GIVES BIRTH TO BONDAGE, which is Hagar-" .

So now we need to get a little honest with ourselves, here. What exactly do we know about Mnt. Sinai? In terms of the covenant of law, which Paul is rebuking them for going back to, this is the place where Moses received the ten commandments from God.

So back to the vs. at hand; vs. 9, where Paul is talking about weak and beggarly elements .." to which you desire again to be in bondage" . Again, what were they doing that got Paul so worked up over? They were allowing themselves to be circumcised, a sign of the covenant of law. This is why he wrote the letter.

In the previous chapter, starting with vs.14, he explains that there was a promise made to Abraham and his Seed. It was a covenant that was based on a promise. Then he goes on to explain why the law was added ( at Mnt Sinai). It was because of transgressions. It had several purposes, the main one being that it held the whole world confined under sin, by virtue of the fact that no one ever kept the law to it's righteous requirement. Therefore it became a teacher, revealing the sin nature to mankind so that they could understand their need for a savior, namely the Seed Who was to come.

Vs.25..."But after faith has come, we are no longer under a tutor". I should add that although some have suggested otherwise, the fact is that Paul was talking about the same law all the way through the letter. He was referring to the covenant that was governed by law. This includes the ten commandments.

It's imperative that one understands the importance of context when developing an understanding of scripture. Thank you, blessings in Christ, Howie
 

Axehead

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I put this in another thread, but it is appropriate for this thread and all threads where Christians are told to "keep the commandments of God".

"keep the commandments of God". How often we have heard this verse used inappropriately (and without understanding).

This is another favorite proof-text of those advocating continued efficacy of the Law (I John 2:3,4 - "We know that we have come to know Him, if we keep His commandments.") The one who says, 'I have come to know Him,' and does not keep His commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him." Well, if we make these commandments synonymous with OT Law then we are all LIARS aren't we?

"Keeping His commandments" is not synonymous with keeping all the commandments of the Old Testament Law.

When Jesus spoke of keeping His commandments as an imperative it carried with it the understanding that He, Himself, is the keeper of His own commands and the dynamic of all His commands to us by His Spirit. When one is now walking in obedience to the Spirit within him, the character of Christ is outworked and manifested in the believer and is evidence that the believer "knows Him" in personal relationship, union, communion and intimacy. Christ will lead us by His Spirit to "put to death the deeds of the flesh" (Rom 8:13) and "walk in love" with Him and others, (Eph 5:2). It also signifies that the personal Truth of Jesus Christ (John 14:6) dwells in us, which is the ONLY WAY anyone can manifest the character of God. This IS being led by the Spirit as we "obey the commandments" of the "Living Torah" Who dwells in us.

John later writes, "Everyone who practices sin also practices lawlessness; and sin is lawlessness" (I John 3:4). Those who advocate continued law-keeping usually define sin as the failure to keep the Old Testament Law. What they have done without knowing it is what the Pharisees did and that is to equate the LAW with GOD. They had deified the LAW. But, the Bible is clear that God does not define sin as merely a violation of Law, but as that which violates and is contrary to His character. The Law revealed this partially in its essential purpose. The "mark that is missed" in sin is not a Law target, BUT THE CHARACTER OF GOD.

Again in I John 5:2,3, John urges Christians to "love God and observe His commandments. This is the love of God, that we keep His commandments." The keeping of God's commandments is fulfilled in the inworking of the Holy Spirit and the outworking of that LIFE (Christ's life) in Christian behavior. Loving character is the fulfillment of the Law. The scripture is clear about this. (Rom. 13:8,10; Gal. 5:14). The character of the "God who is love" (I John 4:8,16) is manifested in the Christian. The love of God is shed abroad in our hearts by the Holy Spirit whom He has given us" (Rom. 5:5).

Rather than producing righteousness, the Law brought only guilt (James 2:10), condemnation (II Cor. 3:9), "curse" (Gal. 3:10) and "wrath" (Rom. 4:15). It fulfilled its purpose and it had its day of glory (II Cor. 3:7-11). "The Law was given through Moses; grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ" (John 1:17). "The Law and the prophets were proclaimed until John (the Baptist), since then the gospel of the kingdom is proclaimed" (Luke 16:16). "All the prophets and the Law prophesied until John (the Baptist)" (Matt. 11:13).

The law did not die of "old age", rather God instituted the Law with planned obsolescence. The law was terminated at a divinely terminated time and that time was the death and resurrection of Christ. "Christ is the end of the Law..." (Rom. 10:4). But that is not all that happened at His death and resurrection.

Jesus came to fulfill the law, "I came to fulfill the Law" (Matt. 5:17). In other words, "I came to fill the Law full; to bring to full fruition all that the Law pointed to pictorially and custodially." When did all that God intended for the restoration of His creation in mankind happen or take place? In the death, resurrection, ascension and Pentecostal outpouring of Jesus Christ. God's purposes for the Law were accomplished in Jesus Christ.

And with His death, resurrection, ascension and Pentecostal outpouring,
God's purpose for the restoration of His life to man was also accomplished.

Christ is the END OF THE LAW.
IT IS FINISHED!!
Know Christ, know Life
No Christ, no Life.
 

John_8:32

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Nov 9, 2012
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Axehead said:
Christ is the END OF THE LAW.
IT IS FINISHED!!
Know Christ, know Life
No Christ, no Life.
Amazing! After countless times of showing that end means point of aim, result of keeping the law, it is continually misquoted by you.

let's look at that word again...

Rom 10:4 For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth.

The word end:

G5056
τέλος
telos
tel'-os
From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost. Compare G5411.

So does this really mean the end of as in obliterating? Doing away with? Here is the same Greek word rendered custom...

Rom 13:7 Render therefore to all their dues: tribute to whom tribute is due; custom to whom custom; fear to whom fear; honour to whom honour.

Here it is again, renedered as end...

Rom 6:22 But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life.

So what does this say? Is this the end of eternal life as in there is no more? That is EXACTLY what you are saying when you stubbornly continue to misuse the word end in Rom 10:4.

How about this verse?

1Pe 1:9 Receiving the end of your faith, even the salvation of your souls.

By your erroneous restating of falsehood, this is the doing away with, the ABOLISHMENT of faith.

Oh and by the way, the following verse uses exactly the same word as Rom 10:4 for end, G5056. So I guess this is the destruction and doing away with the LORD?

Jas 5:11 Behold, we count them happy which endure. Ye have heard of the patience of Job, and have seen the end of the Lord; that the Lord is very pitiful, and of tender mercy.

I am done here, as long as you continue to misquote and twist scripture.

2Pe 3:16 As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.
 

Axehead

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Actually, I am quoting it just fine. Your understanding of it is just different than mine.
 

dragonfly

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this is the doing away with, the ABOLISHMENT of faith.
But John, 'abolishment' bears no resemblance to your comprehensive statement at the start of your post:

From a primary word τέλλω tellō (to set out for a definite point or goal); properly the point aimed at as a limit, that is, (by implication) the conclusion of an act or state (termination [literally, figuratively or indefinitely], result [immediate, ultimate or prophetic], purpose); specifically an impost or levy (as paid): - + continual, custom, end (-ing), finally, uttermost. Compare G5411.

So does this really mean the end of as in obliterating? Doing away with?
Of course, not. You had just explained that, and then brought in 'obliterating' and 'doing away with'..... Because?

Because you want to believe that that's what Axehead means, when it cannot be what he means, since Romans 10:4 states unequivocally that CHRIST is the 'end' Maybe you should try putting that back in with the definition of 'tello', and see if you can understand that verse a bit better.
 

Axehead

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Christ is still the great stumblingblock to many.

Luk_24:44 And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.

These "all things" have been fulfilled in the death, resurrection and ascension of Jesus Christ. The Law would not pass away until all these things were fulfilled concerning Christ. It is now nailed to the cross and the Old Covenant is terminated by a bringing in of a better hope, better REST and Better Covenant.

Read more in the other Sabbath thread