This is also not true, for example:
Can we examine them then...?
ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ Ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου.
J 20:28
John 20:28....
“Thomas answered him, “My Lord and my God!” (ESV)
This is a classic example of the misuse of the capital letter.
Was Thomas declaring Jesus as his “God” or as his “god” under the definition that this term encompasses.
Did Thomas believe differently to all the other apostles who collectively declared at 1 Cor 8:5-6 that.....
“For although there may be so-called gods in heaven or on earth—as indeed there are many “gods” and many “lords”— yet for us there is one God, the Father, from whom are all things and for whom we exist, and one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom are all things and through whom we exist.” (ESV)
Their “one God” was “the Father”...their “one Lord” was Jesus Christ....plainly stated.
There is no unequivocal statement to the contrary.
πρὸς δὲ τὸν Υἱόν Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ Θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, καὶ ἡ ῥάβδος τῆς εὐθύτητος ῥάβδος τῆς βασιλείας αὐτοῦ.
Heb 1:8
You cannot pin a doctrine to one misunderstood verse....read the next one...
“But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated wickedness; therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness beyond your companions.” (ESV)
In the folowing verse it is clear that the one addressed has a God who anointed him and that this one was placed above his “companions”.....
The first part of verse 8 can be translated “God is your throne forever” which again agrees with the rest of Scripture.
So again, Scripture explains Scripture as does context.
Ἐγώ εἰμι τὸ Ἄλφα καὶ τὸ Ὦ, λέγει Κύριος ὁ Θεός, ὁ ὢν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος, ὁ Παντοκράτωρ.
Rev 1:8
Again let’s take that verse in context.....
Verses 5-6....8
“and from Jesus Christ the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of kings on earth. To him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by his blood and made us a kingdom, priests to his God and Father, to him be glory and dominion forever and ever. Amen.
“I am the Alpha and the Omega,” says the Lord God, “who is and who was and who is to come, the Almighty.” (ESV)
Jesus freed his disciples from their sins “by his blood and made them to be a kingdom of priests to his God and Father” and says “to him be the glory and dominion forever”.
Does the Christ have “glory and dominion”? He does, but it is because he has had these given to him by his God and Father. (Matt 28:18; John 17:4-5)
Verse 8 is declaring “the Lord God” (“the Almighty”) as the “Alpha and the Omega”....which means what in Greek? These are the first and last letters of the Greek alphabet and can correctly be applied to both Father and son just as the term “savior” applies to both.
Jesus is identified as the one who has Yahweh as “his God and Father”..... can a son be his own God and Father? Any wonder people get confused and this debate still rages. It makes no logical sense.
Or, if you want it even directly from the Old Testament:
ὁ θρόνος σου, ὁ Θεός, εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ράβδος εὐθύτητος ἡ ῥάβδος τῆς βασιλείας σου.
Psalm 44:7 (LXX)
What does that passage reveal in relation to your assertions?
Psalm 44:4-8...
“You are my King, O God; ordain salvation for Jacob! Through you we push down our foes; through your name we tread down those who rise up against us. For not in my bow do I trust, nor can my sword save me. But you have saved us from our foes and have put to shame those who hate us. In God we have boasted continually, and we will give thanks to your name forever.” (ESV)
Who is David addressing? His one and only God was Yahweh. That is the name he would give thanks to, forever. (Psalm 83:18)
Did David have another god? NO! But David did have another “Lord” that he mentioned in Psalm 110 when he said..
“The LORD says to my Lord: “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.” The LORD sends forth from Zion your mighty scepter. Rule in the midst of your enemies!” (Psalm 110: 1-2 ESV)
There are two ”Lords” mentioned there, but in Hebrew, that one with the capital letters is Yahweh.
Yahweh says to the coming Messiah, “sit at my right hand until I make your enemies your footstool.”
The power and authority of his Messiah comes from Yahweh.....the Almighty. A title not once given to Jesus.
Probably kings or judges.
Yes, because of what “theos” means in Greek.....not just one definition....not necessarily a capital “G”.
It is not. It has already been solved almost 2,000 years ago. Only some modern cults (the 19th century) try to pretend it is something still open. For Christians, the issue is long time settled. Why does your profile say you are a Christian?
Sorry, it still rages, but only the “few” have the correct interpretation....the rest are lost in apostate teachings so deeply entrenched over so many centuries, that for some they are irretrievably implanted and immovable, no matter how much Scripture is presented.
Ask yourself why the “few” are hated and persecuted (John 15:18-21) whilst the many put their trust in a majority view.....according to Jesus, the majority are on the wrong road. (Matt 7:13-14; 21-23) It’s a dead end because the first Commandment is broken.....another “god” has been substituted for “the one true God” of the Bible....Yahweh, the Father of Jesus, of the angels, and of the faithful who cannot tolerate the idea of a substitute.
I identify as a “Christian” because I am not a victim of church theology....I am first and foremost, a Bible student, and the Bible is the only source of my truth......not a hopelessly divided church system who cannot agree on much except but the very doctrines that do not originate from Scripture.
It was foretold....”wheat and weeds”....”sheep and goats” is all Jesus will find in the world when he arrives as judge....which category will he find us in? The misled majority....or the informed and hated minority?
He will let us all know soon enough.
