How did the Trinity doctrine develop in the early church?

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The Learner

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Conclusion
While the scholars we have considered have some differences with regard to the applicability of Colwell's Rule to John 1:1c and the particular semantic force of THEOS in this clause, they are unanimous in regarding the proper understanding of John's meaning: The Word has all the qualities, attributes, or nature of God, the same God referenced in the previous clause. The absence of the article, all agree, is purposeful; John intends to remove any possibility of a convertible proposition. The definite article signifies a personal distinction, thus the Person of God is in view in John 1:1b. The absence of the article signifies that the nature or essence of God is in view in 1:1c. John is not teaching that the Logos is the same Person as the Father. Nor, do the scholars believe, is John teaching that the Logos is a second god. All agree that the indefinite semantic force is unlikely.

It is my view that those who argue that the definite semantic force would signify a convertible proposition have the best case (but, see note #2, below). The purely qualitative nuance is well-attested in the Greek New Testament3, as has been demonstrated by Harner, Dixon, Wallace, and Hartley. The latter has demonstrated its application to both mass and count terms, and thus its application to THEOS in John 1:1c. It is important to note that even those scholars who maintain that THEOS is definite nevertheless argue that the significance of John's words are virtually identical with those who argue for a qualitative nuance.

Based on the evidence presented here, we may confidently take John's meaning as:

"In the beginning of all creation, the Word was already in existence. The Word was intimately with God. And the Word was as to His essence, fully God."4
 

The Learner

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Notes

1. This objection, raised most forcefully by Harner, assumes a mathematical precision that cannot always be sustained in the pragmatics of language use. While convertible propositions usually signify 100% equivalence between subject and predicate, this need not be the case when they are preceded by an explicit statement denying 100% equivalence ("And the Word was with God"). It is doubtful that the 8th Century scribes who wrote "kai ho theos �n ho logos" in Codex L (Regius) understood what is grammatically a convertible proposition to be tantamount to Modalism. Other explanations are certainly possible, such as understanding theos to be used as a title or proper name, or taking the entire verse as a paradox.

2. This line of argument is addressed in the Jehovah's Witness/John 1:1c section of Other Views Considered (below). It has been thoroughly debated by Don Hartley and Jehovah's Witness apologist, Greg Stafford. I had a brief interaction with Greg Stafford on this subject as well. See also "Theos is a Count Noun").

3. C.f., John 3:6 "He who is born of the flesh is (by nature) flesh; he who is born of the Spirit is (by nature) spirit

4. Cf., Wuest's The New Testament: An Expanded Translation: "And the Word was as to His essence absolute deity;" and the New English Translation: "and the Word was fully God." Perhaps the most accurate English translation of John 1:1 has been offered by Robert Bowman: "In the Beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the Deity, and the Word was Deity" (John, p. 27). This translation preserves the use and non-use of the article, and conveys the purely qualitative nuance of the anarthrous theos. The Dana-Mantey grammar offers essentially the same translation, sans the capital letters: "and the word was deity" (p. 148). In Colossians 2:9, Paul uses a different grammatical construction to say much the same thing about Christ's Deity.
 
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MonoBiblical

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What do you make of the Greek statement ὁ πατήρ, ὁ λόγος, or rather πατήρ λόγος, pater logos? If the father is the LOGOS, what is Jesus?

This is in 1 John 5:7
 

St. SteVen

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What do you make of the Greek statement ὁ πατήρ, ὁ λόγος, or rather πατήρ λόγος, pater logos? If the father is the LOGOS, what is Jesus?

This is in 1 John 5:7
The Father is not the Logos.

The Word/Logos is the logic/reason/plan/meaning

The Word/Logos became flesh/Jesus.
 

shepherdsword

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What do you make of the Greek statement ὁ πατήρ, ὁ λόγος, or rather πατήρ λόγος?

Edit: This is in 1 John 5:7
This is a good question. Let's take a look at both sides
In defense of it:
1764209582739.png

Evidence against it:

1) All wrote extensively on the Trinity and never cite 1 John 5:7.
  • Athanasius
  • Basil the Great
  • Gregory of Nyssa
  • Gregory Nazianzen
  • Chrysostom
  • Cyril of Alexandria
This silence is considered decisive evidence against its originality.

2) The earliest Latin Fathers do not cite the heavenly witnesses clause:
  • Tertullian
  • Cyprian (important because some claim he quoted it)
  • Augustine
  • Jerome (in his authentic writings)
  • Ambrose
None of these men quote the Comma Johanneum as found in the KJV

3) What About Cyprian?
Cyprian wrote (c. AD 250):
“And again it is written of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit,
‘and these three are one’.” (On the Unity of the Church, 6)
Key points:
  • Cyprian is not quoting Scripture here; he is applying verse 8 (the Spirit, water, and blood) typologically to the Trinity.
  • Early Latin manuscripts of 1 John do not contain the Comma at this time.
  • All modern textual scholars agree Cyprian did not know the Comma Johanneum.

Conclusion? 1 Jn 5:7 was probably a marginal note that was later forced into the text. However, the doctrine of the Trinity can still be defended without it.
 
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MonoBiblical

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This is a good question. Let's take a look at both sides
In defense of it:
View attachment 74477

Evidence against it:

1) All wrote extensively on the Trinity and never cite 1 John 5:7.
  • Athanasius
  • Basil the Great
  • Gregory of Nyssa
  • Gregory Nazianzen
  • Chrysostom
  • Cyril of Alexandria
This silence is considered decisive evidence against its originality.

2) The earliest Latin Fathers do not cite the heavenly witnesses clause:
  • Tertullian
  • Cyprian (important because some claim he quoted it)
  • Augustine
  • Jerome (in his authentic writings)
  • Ambrose
None of these men quote the Comma Johanneum as found in the KJV

3) What About Cyprian?
Cyprian wrote (c. AD 250):

Key points:
  • Cyprian is not quoting Scripture here; he is applying verse 8 (the Spirit, water, and blood) typologically to the Trinity.
  • Early Latin manuscripts of 1 John do not contain the Comma at this time.
  • All modern textual scholars agree Cyprian did not know the Comma Johanneum.

Conclusion? 1 Jn 5:7 was probably a marginal note that was later forced into the text. However, the doctrine of the Trinity can still be defended without it.
A marginal note means the scribe forgot something. It is usually red ink. 3 can be one group, just like English.
 
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MonoBiblical

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The relational direction of John 1 is between 2. God ---> Word made flesh (Jesus)

John knew his name by the way which makes his use of Logos rather interesting don't you think?
OUTOS actually means other in Greek. It has to agree gender wise with the thing doing the action though.
 

Hiddenthings

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Yahweh spoke and the angels obeyed, but mankind was not made by angels.
Certainly not, it is accomplished through them by the power of God. Most people do not understand the role of angels. They appear on every page of Scripture, and when your eyes are opened to their involvement, your understanding of how God works will be forever changed.
 
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