Let's see if it is absurd, except I realize I can't count on you being objective, thus being intellectually honest about it, because doctrinal bias will be standing in your way, obviously. And the same goes for
@Marty fox, in this case, in the event he wants to chime in here.
Before we even get to verse 30 we see the following.
Matthew 24:23 Then if any man shall say unto you, Lo, here is Christ, or there; believe it not.
24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect.
25 Behold, I have told you before.
26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not.
27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be.
28 For wheresoever the carcase is, there will the eagles be gathered together.
And that is applicable to 70 AD exactly how? Who could read that, including Preterists, then insist they are being intellectually honest, and then conclude that the context involves why God decided to have wrath on unbelieving Jews and their city leading up to 70 AD? Apparently, what is recorded in verses 23-26 is being applied to the era of time involving verses 15-22. But even if it isn't, it would then mean what is recorded in verses 23-26 are being applied to a time period post what verses 15-22 are involving. And clearly, verse 27 is meaning the same coming verse 30 is meaning. Either way, whether verses 23-26 apply to verses 15-22 or not, verses 23-26 have zero to do with why God decided to have wrath upon unbelieving Jews and their city leading up to 70 AD.
In order to arrive at this coming in verse 30, verses 15-22 have to precede it, and assuming verses 23-26 are not meaning during verses 15-22, that era of time has to be fulfilled as well. Even if verses 15-22 pertain to 70 AD, though I disagree they do, and that if verses 23-26 have to follow verses 15-22, it couldn't possibly still be involving the era of time pertaining to 70 AD when the coming meant in verse 30 takes place.
Matthew 24:30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
You do see that the text indicates Christ comes in great glory as opposed to, I guess, ordinary glory. Right? What then was the great glory that 70 AD revealed about Christ allegedly coming in judgment in 70 AD?
great
polus
pol-oos'
including the forms from the alternate pollos; (singular) much (in any respect) or (plural) many; neuter (singular) as adverbial, largely; neuter (plural) as adverb or noun often, mostly, largely:--abundant, + altogether, common, + far (passed, spent), (+ be of a) great (age, deal, -ly, while), long, many, much, oft(-en (-times)), plenteous, sore, straitly. Compare pleistoV - pleistos 4118, pleiwn - pleion 4119.
glory
doxa
dox'-ah
from the base of dokew - dokeo 1380; glory (as very apparent), in a wide application (literal or figurative, objective or subjective):--dignity, glory(-ious), honour, praise, worship.
I wonder how many unbelieving Jews were praising and worshiping Christ for Him having come in great glory on their behalf in order to destroy them, their temple, and their city? After all, isn't that something glory involves? honour, praise, worship
But if we make verse 30 be meaning the 2nd coming, at least the coming in great glory makes sense in light of the following, for example.
2 Thessalonians 1:10 When he shall come to be glorified in his saints, and to be admired in all them that believe (because our testimony among you was believed) in that day.
But who cares? Right? Preterists apparently don't if they persist insisting that verse 30 fits the first century and 70 AD, not His bodily return in the end of this age instead.