For example. Adam was a mortal and almost lived an entire 1K years. Why then would it be unreasonable to think that mortals can live an entire 1K years in the future? Except some of you have mortals dying all throughout the millennium even though it's not until after the millennium any mortals die(Revelation 20:9).
The rest of the dead are meaning the dead before the millennium, the fact they don't live again until after the millennium. Those in Revelation 20:9 are not dead during the millennium. They are alive during the millennium since they just don't pop out of nowhere all of a sudden, after the millennium.
IMO the trouble with all these views is two-fold:
1. The words of Jesus in the gospels, of the apostles in Acts and in the epistles, and in Revelation 11:18 places
the judgment of all the dead at the time of the return of Christ.
2. There are other themes in the Revelation and statements in the epistles (for example 2 Peter 3:10-14) that place the commencement of the New Heavens and New Earth
immediately afterward.
Plus there is the fact that:
(a) The words "but the remainder [G3062 loipoy] of the dead did not live again until the thousand years were finished." (Revelation 20:5a)
- are not found in the Bible’s oldest Greek manuscript of the Revelation, the Codex Sinaiticus. Nor are they found in the oldest Aramaic manuscript, the Khabouris Codex.
(b) The words are listed as spurious in Tischendorf "List of spurious texts".
(c) The words appear to contradict the scriptures that talk about a day when the dead are raised:
"God has set A DAY on which he is going to judge the world in righteousness, by a man whom he designated, having provided proof to everyone by raising him from the dead." (Acts 17:31).
(d) Omitting the sentence does not affect the meaning of what is being said regarding the souls John saw, who had been beheaded:
"and they lived
and reigned with Christ a thousand years. This is the first resurrection. Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years." (Revelation 20:4-6, with the sentence omitted).
Many Bible translators believe the words regarding "the rest of the dead" are
an interpolation - words which were first written as notes by scribes on the sides or under the text of
some of the Byzantine manuscripts, and were copied
into the text by later scribes who were not sure whether or not the words "should be" in the text (following the principle: "An accidental addition (if that's the case) is better than a deliberate omission, bearing Revelation 22:18-19 in mind").
Whatever the case may be, that first part of the sentence in Revelation 20:5a cannot be used as an argument for anything regarding Premillennialism or regarding the judgment of the dead - i.e regarding "the rest of the dead" being judged later, at the time of Revelation 20:11-15,
when Revelation 11:18 and all Jesus's statements and later statements by the apostles regarding the Day of Judgment imply otherwise.
- also because of point # 2 at the top of this post.
These things are facts, not a matter of interpretation.