Spiritual Israelite
Well-Known Member
Do you somehow not understand that the heavenly Jerusalem is written about in a different context than that as well in scripture? If the text is figurative, then it doesn't have to be talking about when the New Jerusalem comes down from heaven. It could be talking in the same kind of context as what we see here...But it has to come down from God out of heaven first, which clearly hasn't happened yet. Which then means, verses 6-10, which are undeniably meaning when verse 11 is meaning, can't even get fulfilled unto the NJ comes down from heaven first.
Hebrews 12:18 For you have not come to the mountain that may be touched and that burned with fire, and to blackness and darkness and tempest.....22 But you have come to Mount Zion and to the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem, to an innumerable company of angels, 23 to the general assembly and church of the firstborn who are registered in heaven, to God the Judge of all, to the spirits of just men made perfect, 24 to Jesus the Mediator of the new covenant, and to the blood of sprinkling that speaks better things than that of Abel.
This passage says we have come to the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem. Do you understand what that is saying? It's present tense. So, it's speaking of the heavenly Jerusalem in a different sense than we see in Revelation 21. What this passage is saying is that we have spiritually become citizens of the city of the living God, the heavenly Jerusalem because of belonging to Jesus Christ. So, why can't Zechariah 14 be speaking in that sense rather than in the sense of when the new heavenly Jerusalem comes down from heaven? There's no reason why not. Even you don't take all of Zechariah 14 literally, right? That's not how you interpret verses 16 to 21. So, why can't verse 8 and/or verse 11 be figurative instead of literal as well?
I think it's absurd for you to think that these verses have to all be taken literally in a physical sense.Yet some of you would have us believe absurd nonsense that verse 8 was already fulfilled 2000 years ago in spite of that verse 11 is yet to be fulfilled.
Zechariah 14:8 And in that day it shall be That living waters shall flow from Jerusalem, Half of them toward the eastern sea And half of them toward the western sea; In both summer and winter it shall occur.
Why can't this verse relate to this passage...
John 7:37 On the last day, that great day of the feast, Jesus stood and cried out, saying, “If anyone thirsts, let him come to Me and drink. 38 He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water.” 39 But this He spoke concerning the Spirit, whom those believing in Him would receive; for the Holy Spirit was not yet given, because Jesus was not yet glorified.
Why can't the living waters referenced in Zechariah 14:8 represent the same thing as the "rivers of living water" that Jesus referenced, which represent the Holy Spirit?
Also, notice that Jesus indicated that He was referencing Scripture there. There are no scriptures which contain the exact words He used there, but I would say it's quite possible that He was referencing Zechariah 14:8 there while paraphrasing the verse rather than quoting it directly.
Who is doing that? Why can't verse 11 be talking about the heavenly Jerusalem being safely inhabited in the sense that we are currently in the heavenly Jerusalem spiritually right now and are safe from God's wrath because of that? Why do you assume that certain verses in Zechariah 14 have to be taken literally when you don't take verses 16 to 21 literally?It is absurd to divorce verse 8 from verse 11. It is when Jerusalem is safely inhabited that verse 8 is meaning.
LOL! Nowhere. No honest person can act as if they have Zechariah 14 all figured out. You are fooling yourself here. It's one of the most difficult passages in all of scripture to interpret and, yet, your doctrine is mostly based on that passage. Talk about a doctrine that's on shaky ground. Why don't you want to base your doctrine on more clear, straightforward passages instead?I don't know where some of you got your teachings of Zechariah 14 from?
LOL. Do you think anyone is going to take any of these types of comments from you seriously? Someone who tried to rely on some AI to understand Matthew 24:15-21? Don't you know that you have no credibility here? These kinds of comments from you are completely meaningless.But man they were some confused teachers if they insist verse 8 was fulfilled 2000 years ago, when verse 8 is meaning during verse 11, but that verse 11 is yet to be fulfilled.
LOL. Why should anyone here want you to tell them anything about Bible doctrine when you consult AI for understanding?Why can't you figure out of any of these things on your own? Why should I have to tell you that verse 8 can't be meaning 2000 years ago when it is meaning during verse 11, but that verse 11 hasn't been fulfilled yet?
Yes, that would be true in that scenario, but who is saying otherwise exactly? Give me names.It obviously defies common sense, that if verse 8 is meaning during verse 11, but that verse 11 is future still, that this means verse 8 was fulfilled 2000 years ago.
HAHAHA! You are so hilarious, David. So, you think we have no choice but to agree with your nonsensical understanding of the 42 month reign of the beast. Think again! Everything you're saying here is based on the assumption that everyone should agree with your overall end times doctrinal beliefs. Nonsense. Yeah, what you're saying would be true if they agreed with how you understand other scriptures, but otherwise there is no reason for anyone to agree with you about this.Nor can you logically apply verse 11 to the here and now in any sense, since the church has to face the 42 month reign of the beast and great tribulation.
Do you understand that we are citizens of the heavenly Jerusalem right now, as Hebrews 12:22 indicates? If we are persecuted, and even martyred, does that mean we are no longer citizens of the heavenly Jerusalem?Where neither equal what verse 11 records, that being a Jerusalem that is safely inhabited. As if being persecuted, and in some cases martyred, equals being safely inhabited.
No, I do not. Your lies do nothing to support your case. You are failing to take into consideration current spiritual realities because of your carnal way of thinking. And you have no explanation for a futurist fulfillment of verses 16 to 19. You can't even offer a guess as to how to apply those verses to the future. But, we're supposed to believe you have a strong grasp on the rest of Zechariah 14? LOL. Think again.No reasonable person would insist being persecuted, and in some cases martyred, equals safely inhabited. Therefore, there is nothing per the past 2000 years that explain verse 11. Which means verse 11 is future still. Which means verses 6-10 are also future still, since they are undeniably meaning when verse 11 is meaning. And I haven't even brought up that verses 16-19 have to fit somewhere as well. Obviously, during when verses 6-11 is meaning.
You of course argue that Scripture interprets Scripture, then have disputes with Scripture doing exactly that.
Do you understand that in Revelation 11:15 "our Lord" refers to God the Father? It's saying He shall reign forever at that point. That is when Jesus will deliver the kingdom to the Father after He comes again (1 Corinthians 15:22-24). We both agree that Zechariah 14:9 is talking about Jesus and not God the Father. So, Zechariah 14:9 could be referring to the fact that Jesus was given all authority in heaven and earth after His resurrection (Matthew 28:18) and He alone is king over the earth regardless of the presence of any other gods or kings.Clearly, this in Revelation 11:15---The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of his Christ; and he shall reign for ever and ever--is the interpretation of this in Zechariah 14:9--And the LORD shall be king over all the earth: in that day shall there be one LORD, and his name one..
Someone claiming to be God doesn't change the fact that there is only one God. There is only one LORD and king over the earth right now and that is Jesus. He said so Himself (Matthew 28:18). So, this argument you're making here is extremely weak. As most of your arguments are.Where it is then plainly obvious that Revelation 11:15 is meaning after 2 Thessalonians 2:4 has been fulfilled, which then makes sense of Zechariah 14:9, because now all that remains is just 1 Lord, not two lords. IOW, Zechariah 14:9 cannot be true until 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is no longer true. Because, while 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is still true does not equal there shall be one LORD, and his name one
Are you going to argue that the one meant in 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is not trying to make itself the lord over anyone? Yet, Zechariah 14:9 records, that when it is meaning, there shall be one LORD, and his name one. 2 Thessalonians 2:4 clearly contradicts that if Zechariah 14:9 is meaning when 2 Thessalonians 2:4 is meaning.
Let me ask you this. What time period do you think Zechariah 12 and 13 refer to in relation to the first and/or second coming of Christ?
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