MOTB by itself does not always = LOF ??

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Davidpt

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Six HUNDRED three score and six .
MEANING SIX HUNDRED AND SIXTY SIX . some of us learned english . Went to library and examined
the beginning of our own langauge and throughout the old , middle , early modern and modern .
IT MEANS SIX HUNDRED AND SIXTY SIX .
And the name of the beast ADDS UP to that . that is the number of his name .

1 Kings 10:14 Now the weight of gold that came to Solomon in one year was six hundred threescore and six talents of gold,

Revelation 13:18 Here is wisdom. Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is Six hundred threescore and six.

This can't be a coincidence. There has to be a connection here in some way. The connection appears to be connected with wealth. And look what we have these days, numerous wealthy elites that want all power to belong to them.

I don't possess the wisdom, nor am I going to pretend I do, in order to know the answers. But even so, it still seems to me someone is trying to tell us something here, and that maybe 1 Kings 10 holds some of the clues?
 

IndianaRob

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Are you NOT going to tell me your definition of dispensationalism is?
I can't say yes or no if you don't tell me what you say it means.
The passage only says you can't buy or sell, it doesn't say what it is you can't buy or sell. It's vague, which gives room for whatever presupposition a reader brings to it and mine included. I lean toward "all times" because nothing in the text restricts it to one future window (I know you don't agree) and you lean toward tech because it fits the framework of an antichrist figure, a rebuilt temple, and a treaty with Israel etc.
 

Davidpt

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The passage only says you can't buy or sell, it doesn't say what it is you can't buy or sell. It's vague, which gives room for whatever presupposition a reader brings to it and mine included. I lean toward "all times" because nothing in the text restricts it to one future window (I know you don't agree) and you lean toward tech because it fits the framework of an antichrist figure, a rebuilt temple, and a treaty with Israel etc.

It's not logical to connect that to all times. Simply because, when John saw these visions he indicated that the beast ascends out of the pit in the future. sometime post his day and time. And logic and common sense says that there can't be this MOTB to begin with, unless the beast has ascended out of the pit, and a 2nd one out of the earth, and the 2nd one then fulfills everything recorded in Rev 13 concerning it.

Not to mention, what about Rev 16:2? That verse is nonsensical if we apply that to all times. It requires everyone this first vial is poured out upon, they have to be living in the same era of time and all of them have to be alive at the same time. Vial 1, as for the remaining vials, only get poured out one time each. And not multiple times spread across thousand of years.

For an 'all times' view to work, it requires ignoring the chronological sequence of the bowl judgments in chapter 16. Until that specific contradiction is addressed, I can't see that framework as a possibility.
 
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IndianaRob

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It's not logical to connect that to all times. Simply because, when John saw these visions he indicate that the beast ascends out of the pit in the future. sometime post his day and time. And that there can't be this MOTB unless the beast has ascended out of the pit, and a 2nd one out of the earth, and the 2nd one fulfills everything recorded in Rev 13 concerning it.

Not to mention, what about Rev 16:2? That verse is nonsensical if we apply that to all times. It requires everyone this first vial is poured out upon, they have to be living in the same era of time and all of them have to be alive at the same time. Vial 1, as the remaining vials, only get poured out one time each. And not multiple times spread across thousand of years.

If you don't care to be logical about things, then don't be. But don't expect me to accept any of your theories as possibilities if there is zero logic to any of them.
I think my view is completely logical, of course, just as you do yours. The last thing in the sequence of events in Revelation is Heavenly Jerusalem coming down from heaven.

I am assume you're waiting for that to happen int the future but I see it as already accomplished at the cross, since that's where the old covenant/earthly Jerusalem order was ended and the new one started.
 

Davidpt

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Why does buying and selling have to relate to buying and selling material things? Revelation is a highly symbolic book, so why assume that it talking about the literal buying and selling of merchandise?

Proverbs 23:23 Buy the truth, and do not sell it, Also wisdom and instruction and understanding.

Verses like this one show that buying and selling can be understood in a figurative sense. Having the mark of the beast and worshiping the beast go hand in hand. Revelation 13:8 says that those who worship the beast are those whose names are not written in the book of life. So, having the mark of the beast means you're not saved. How can the ability to purchase material things have anything to do with whether you're saved or not? It can't. So, I believe not being able to buy or sell without the mark of the beast means that no one can freely buy or sell their beliefs/philosophies/religion without the mark of the beast. Which means those trying to sell (preach) the truth (the gospel) are met with severe opposition that tries to prevent anyone from buying (accepting, believing) it. Spiritual truths are repeatedly illustrated symbolically in the book of Revelation. Taking these things literally results in some unbiblical conclusions such as thinking that having the literal ability to buy or sell merchandise could somehow determine whether someone is saved or not (has their name written in the book of life or not).

I gave your post to an AI then asked it to point out any and all holes in your approach here.

The following are the holes it found. You are likely unwilling to accept the critque since it was an AI doing the critiquing. That's your choice then. But even so, I don't see this AI not making sense here.

This AI:

This is a fascinating interpretation, and it correctly identifies that Revelation is a highly symbolic book. However, when subjected to strict textual analysis and logical consistency, this approach contains several significant holes.

Here are the primary flaws in this interpreter's approach when compared to the actual text:

### 1. It Creates a Backwards, Unbiblical Logical Loop
The interpreter claims that "buying" means accepting the truth, and "selling" means preaching the gospel. Let's apply that to the actual text of Revelation 13:17: *"no man might buy or sell, save he that had the mark..."*
* If this figurative view is correct, the verse would mean: **"No one can accept or preach the truth, *unless they have the mark of the beast*."**
* This makes no sense. The mark of the beast is consistently presented as the absolute opposite of following Christ. If having the mark of the beast is a prerequisite for preaching or accepting the gospel, the interpreter has fundamentally broken the theology of the entire book.

### 2. A False Dichotomy Regarding Salvation
The interpreter asks: *"How can the ability to purchase material things have anything to do with whether you're saved or not?"*
This sets up a false premise. The text never says that buying merchandise *determines* your salvation. Rather, it teaches the exact opposite: **Your salvation (or lack thereof) determines your ability to buy merchandise.**
The sequence in the text is:
1. People refuse to worship the beast (because they belong to Christ).
2. Because they refuse to worship, they refuse the mark.
3. Because they refuse the mark, the beast system economically boycotts them.
The inability to buy and sell is a *consequence* of being saved and refusing to compromise, not the *cause* of salvation.

### 3. It Ignores the Immediate Demographic Context
Revelation 13:16 (the verse immediately preceding the one in question) says the mark is enforced upon *"small and great, rich and poor, free and slave."*
* If the passage is only about the exchange of philosophical or religious ideas, why does the Holy Spirit specifically divide the population by **economic and social class**?
* Terms like "rich and poor" and "free and slave" only make sense in a literal, socio-economic context. A slave and a free man both have minds to believe the gospel, but their ability to participate in literal commerce is vastly different. The interpreter ignores verse 16 to make verse 17 fit their theory.

### 4. Inconsistent Use of Greek Vocabulary
The interpreter relies on Proverbs 23:23 to prove "buy/sell" can be figurative. But we must look at how John uses these exact Greek words (*agorazō* = buy; *pōleō* = sell) in Revelation.
* Just two chapters later, in Revelation 18, Babylon the Great falls. John uses these exact same words repeatedly to describe literal merchants (*emporios*) weeping because no one buys (*agorazō*) their literal cargo anymore—gold, silver, cinnamon, horses, chariots, and even the literal "bodies and souls of men" (slaves) (Rev 18:11-13).
* To force Revelation 13:17 to be purely figurative while Revelation 18 uses the exact same commercial vocabulary for literal physical trade is inconsistent exegesis.

### 5. Breaking the Literary Parallelism of the Passage
Revelation 13:15 says the beast has power to **kill** those who refuse to worship the image.
Revelation 13:17 says the beast prevents those without the mark from **buying or selling**.
In Hebrew apocalyptic literature, these two verses are parallel punishments meant to coerce worship. One is lethal (the sword), the other is non-lethal but equally devastating (economic starvation). If you make verse 17 purely figurative ("they can't share ideas"), you destroy the parallel. The beast is depicted as a totalitarian dictator who uses the sword *and* the purse to force compliance.

### 6. The "Genre Mixing" Fallacy
The interpreter takes a metaphor from Wisdom Literature (Proverbs 23:23) and uses it to overwrite Apocalyptic Literature (Revelation 13:17).
Yes, Proverbs uses "buying truth" as a metaphor for pursuing wisdom. But apocalyptic literature uses extreme, dramatic physical symbols to represent literal, physical realities. For example, Revelation speaks of literal "famines" (Rev 6:8) using the symbol of a black horse. If we applied the interpreter's logic consistently, we would have to argue that the famines in Revelation aren't literal lack of food, but just a "lack of spiritual truth"—which ignores the physical death that accompanies the famine.

### Summary
The interpreter's approach falls apart because it isolates a single metaphor from Proverbs, ignores the immediate context of Revelation 13:16, creates a logical paradox where only the damned can preach the gospel, and fails to recognize that economic sanctions are a standard, literal tool of physical persecution used by totalitarian regimes throughout history (including the Roman Empire John's original audience was facing).
----------------------

(What the AI said per the following reminds me of of what the Trump Administration is setting out to accomplish. I should know. I'm among the poor in this country and have been experiencing some of these attacks upon the poor firsthand---"and fails to recognize that economic sanctions are a standard, literal tool of physical persecution used by totalitarian regimes throughout history"

Obviously then, Trump and his regime are part of this beast system in question. In my mind anyway.)
 
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ewq1938

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Oh boy. Here it is in simplest terms.

666 isn't just 6-6-6

Everyone reads 666 as "six hundred sixty-six" — 6 hundreds, 6 tens, 6 ones. Fine. But that's not the only way to count it.

Count it as 66 tens + 6 ones.
66 = books of the Bible.
6 = number of man.
666 = man added to the Word of God.

No interpretation needed it says what it says.


No, the Greek is specific that 666 is 600 plus 60 plus 6, one number adding to 666. It is not 66 plus 6 or three individual 6's.
 
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Davidpt

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I think my view is completely logical, of course, just as you do yours. The last thing in the sequence of events in Revelation is Heavenly Jerusalem coming down from heaven.

I am assume you're waiting for that to happen int the future but I see it as already accomplished at the cross, since that's where the old covenant/earthly Jerusalem order was ended and the new one started.

You are treating Revelation 13 like a collection of independent, floating concepts. You cannot have the effect (the mark and the buying/selling restriction) without the cause (the beast ascending, the second beast arriving, the image being set up). If the beast hasn't ascended in a specific timeline, the mark cannot logically be in effect.


Rev 16:2 says the first bowl is poured out---on the men who had the mark of the beast...

Bowls are sequential, cumulative judgments. You can't pour out the first bowl in 90 AD, and then pour out the first bowl again in 2024, and again in 3000 AD, etc. Therefore, the mark cannot be a perpetual reality across all of human history. It is locked into a specific, future eschatological window. This alone renders your "all times" theory logically impossible.
 

ewq1938

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Are you saying that 66 tens plus 6 ones isn’t 666?


I'm saying it is one number in the Greek, not two separate numbers of two separate things added together such as 66 books of a bible and just the number 6 for man.

Rev also says it's the number of a name of the beast.

Rev_13:18 Here is wisdom. Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is Six hundred threescore and six.

Rev_15:2 And I saw as it were a sea of glass mingled with fire: and them that had gotten the victory over the beast, and over his image, and over his mark, and over the number of his name, stand on the sea of glass, having the harps of God.
 

Davidpt

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Oh boy. Here it is in simplest terms.

666 isn't just 6-6-6

Everyone reads 666 as "six hundred sixty-six" — 6 hundreds, 6 tens, 6 ones. Fine. But that's not the only way to count it.

Count it as 66 tens + 6 ones.
66 = books of the Bible.
6 = number of man.
666 = man added to the Word of God.

No interpretation needed it says what it says.

Is it true of all Bibles that there are exactly 66 books? Take unbelieving Jews, for instance. How many books are in their Bible? Take Catholics as well. How many books are in their Bible? Hmmm...just like that, your math no longer works.
 
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Anchorite

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Is it true of all Bibles that there are exactly 66 books? Take unbelieving Jews, for instance. How many books are in their Bible? Take Catholics as well. How many books are in their Bible? Hmmm...just like that, your math no longer works.
Major Denominational Bible Counts
    • Protestant: 66 total books (39 Old Testament, 27 New Testament)
    • Roman Catholic: 73 total books (46 Old Testament/Deuterocanonical, 27 New Testament)
    • Eastern Orthodox: 76 to 78 total books (includes additional historical and prophetic texts like 3 & 4 Maccabees, Psalm 151)
    • Ethiopian Orthodox Tewahedo: 81 total books (includes unique texts like Enoch and Jubilees)
    • Jewish Tanakh (Hebrew Bible): 24 books (contains the same material as the Protestant 39 Old Testament books, combined differently)
 
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IndianaRob

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You are treating Revelation 13 like a collection of independent, floating concepts. You cannot have the effect (the mark and the buying/selling restriction) without the cause (the beast ascending, the second beast arriving, the image being set up). If the beast hasn't ascended in a specific timeline, the mark cannot logically be in effect.


Rev 16:2 says the first bowl is poured out---on the men who had the mark of the beast...

Bowls are sequential, cumulative judgments. You can't pour out the first bowl in 90 AD, and then pour out the first bowl again in 2024, and again in 3000 AD, etc. Therefore, the mark cannot be a perpetual reality across all of human history. It is locked into a specific, future eschatological window. This alone renders your "all times" theory logically impossible.
I don't believe any of it is independent or floating. Revelation 13:16 says the second beast "causeth all... to receive a mark," so he's the one enforcing it. But the number, 666, belongs to the first beast: "the number of the beast... his number is Six hundred threescore and six" (13:17-18).

So the second beast causes all to receive something that belongs to the first beast, his mark, his name, his number. That's an enforcement action, not an origin story. Nothing in the verse says the mark sprang into existence the moment he acts, only that he's the one who caused all to receive it.

You're treating the second beast's appearance as the absolute starting point for the mark's existence, which is what you're using to rule out my claim that the mark has been around for all times. But causing something to be universally received, and that thing coming into existence for the first time, aren't the same event.
 

IndianaRob

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Is it true of all Bibles that there are exactly 66 books? Take unbelieving Jews, for instance. How many books are in their Bible? Take Catholics as well. How many books are in their Bible? Hmmm...just like that, your math no longer works.
It's up the person to decide if God's word in translations are inspired or not. I believe they are, but I do understand most people don't believe that.
 

IndianaRob

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I'm saying it is one number in the Greek, not two separate numbers of two separate things added together such as 66 books of a bible and just the number 6 for man.

Rev also says it's the number of a name of the beast.

Rev_13:18 Here is wisdom. Let him that hath understanding count the number of the beast: for it is the number of a man; and his number is Six hundred threescore and six.

Rev_15:2 And I saw as it were a sea of glass mingled with fire: and them that had gotten the victory over the beast, and over his image, and over his mark, and over the number of his name, stand on the sea of glass, having the harps of God.
We don't have to agree, I'm just giving what I think. How do you count a number?
 

Anchorite

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In ancient biblical manuscripts and alternative text translations, the number 666 (the number of the beast from Revelation 13:18) is famously found as 616 in some early witnesses, such as the 3rd-century Papyrus 115 and certain Latin translation variants.
 

IndianaRob

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In ancient biblical manuscripts and alternative text translations, the number 666 (the number of the beast from Revelation 13:18) is famously found as 616 in some early witnesses, such as the 3rd-century Papyrus 115 and certain Latin translation variants.
Manuscripts disagree with each other all over the place, not just here. So do modern translations.
 

Davidpt

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I don't believe any of it is independent or floating. Revelation 13:16 says the second beast "causeth all... to receive a mark," so he's the one enforcing it. But the number, 666, belongs to the first beast: "the number of the beast... his number is Six hundred threescore and six" (13:17-18).

So the second beast causes all to receive something that belongs to the first beast, his mark, his name, his number. That's an enforcement action, not an origin story. Nothing in the verse says the mark sprang into existence the moment he acts, only that he's the one who caused all to receive it.

You're treating the second beast's appearance as the absolute starting point for the mark's existence, which is what you're using to rule out my claim that the mark has been around for all times. But causing something to be universally received, and that thing coming into existence for the first time, aren't the same event.

You are arguing that the second beast is just enforcing a mark that already existed. But you are completely ignoring who the mark belongs to.

Revelation 13:1 explicitly states that the first beast ascends out of the sea. This is a future, timed event in Johns narrative.


How can the first beast have a name or a number to put on a mark for all times if the first beast hasnt even ascended out of the sea yet?

A king cannot have an official royal seal branding his subjects before he actually becomes king and establishes his kingdom. The mark belongs to the beasts reign, which hasnt started until Revelation 13.


The giving of the mark is linked to a specific event---the creation of the image of the beast. Look at the immediate context:

Verse 14--The second beast tells the earth to make an image to the first beast.

Verse 15---He gives breath to the image so it can speak, and causes those who wont worship it to be killed.

Verse 16---Then he causes all to receive a mark.

The mark is the administrative tool used to enforce the worship of the newly created image. You cant have people receiving a mark for an image that hasnt been built or given breath yet. The sequence is rigid.


Plus you completely ignored my Revelation 16:2 argument. That is because you have no answer for it. Even if I were to grant your bizarre theory that the mark was just sitting around for thousands of years waiting to be enforced, it still crashes into Revelation 16:2.

Even if I grant your distinction between the origin of the mark and the enforcement of it, it doesnt solve the Rev 16:2 problem. The first bowl is poured out specifically on the men who had the mark of the beast. Bowls are singular, sequential judgments. You cannot pour out a single first bowl on people holding the mark in 900 AD, and then pour out that same first bowl on people holding the mark in 2024. The mark must be held by a single, contemporary generation living during the bowl judgments.

The distinction youre making between enforcing and originating ignores the timeline of the beasts themselves. The mark belongs to the first beast (v.17), but the first beast doesnt even ascend from the sea until Revelation 13:1. A beast cannot have an official mark, name, or number tied to his reign before his reign actually begins. Furthermore, the enforcement of the mark is directly tied to the creation and worship of the image of the beast (v.14-15). You cant enforce a mark for an image that doesnt exist yet.

But even if we set that aside and grant your premise---that the mark existed prior to enforcement---it still runs headfirst into Revelation 16:2. The first bowl judgment is poured out specifically on those who have the mark. Since the bowl judgments are sequential, one-time events, all the people who have the mark must be alive at the exact same time to receive that specific judgment. An all times view requires the first bowl to be poured out repeatedly over thousands of years on different generations, which contradicts the text. The chronological sequencing of chapters 13 and 16 simply doesn't allow for an all times application.

You are committing the 'pick and choose' fallacy. You want to take one verse (causeth all to receive a mark), isolate it from its surrounding text, and stretch it like a rubber band over 2,000+ years, while completely ignoring the highly specific, sequential events that give that mark its context.


Revelation 13:3 says the deadly wound and its healing are the exact reasons the world marvels and follows the beast---And I saw one of his heads as it were wounded to death; and his deadly wound was healed: and all the world wondered after the beast.

If the beast has been active for all times (since the fall of man, or since Pentecost), when did this wound happen? Was the beast mortally wounded in 4000 BC, healed, and the whole world wondered after him---but nobody wrote it down in history? That defies logic. The wound is a specific, observable, eschatological event that kicks off his global reign.


If the beast exists in a perpetual all times state, then you have to assume he is perpetually walking around with a healed mortal wound. But a healed wound requires a sequence.


A) Alive/Unwounded.(thus not in the pit yet)

B) Mortally Wounded (Dead/Dying)--(thus is in the pit)

C) Healed (Resurrected/Restored)--(Thus has ascendend out of the pit)

You cannot be in State C) perpetually from the beginning of time unless you completely skip States A) and B). And if you skip States A) and B), the text loses all its meaning.

All of the above and what I submit below proves the 42 month reign Has a starting point
The wounding and healing is what authenticates the beast's false claim to the world . The beast cannot have a reign, an image, an enforcement arm (the false prophet), or a mark until after he has ascended, been wounded, and miraculously healed.

Furthermore, an 'all times' view completely ignores the narrative sequence of the chapter itself. Before the mark can be enforced, the first beast has to ascend (v.1), receive a deadly wound that is miraculously healed (v.3), and have an image constructed for the world to worship (v.14). You can't have a beast walking around throughout all of human history with a healed mortal wound before he has even ascended out of the sea. The wound, the healing, the image, the mark, and the bowl judgments in chapter 16 all point to a specific, future window of time, not a perpetual state.
 
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CrowCross

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The passage only says you can't buy or sell, it doesn't say what it is you can't buy or sell. It's vague, which gives room for whatever presupposition a reader brings to it and mine included. I lean toward "all times" because nothing in the text restricts it to one future window (I know you don't agree) and you lean toward tech because it fits the framework of an antichrist figure, a rebuilt temple, and a treaty with Israel etc.
People better wake up.
 

Jay Ross

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^^^ title is wrong.

Having the mark of the beast when we are judged means that we will be dispatched into the Lake of Fire, no ifs, no buts.

However, if a person repents of allowing the Indelible Mark of the Beast to be put upon their own body and then lives keeping the conditions of their salvation intact, then the Lake of Fire will hold no claim to them.

Shalom
 

PeterAndroz

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Sorry for the delay, Peter. Here are a couple of reasons:

Rev 16:9-11 — the marked/beast-worshippers are struck with plagues and "blasphemed the name of God... and repented not to give him glory" / "repented not of their deeds." John frames it as a refusal, not an impossibility. You don't rebuke someone for refusing a door that was never open.

Scripture only names one sin as unforgivable — blasphemy against the Holy Ghost (Matt 12:31-32) — and that's arguably not something a believer can even commit. Nothing singles out the mark as a second exception.
Thx for the reply IR.
My response was re the MOTB
Rev 14:9 ......and receive his mark in his forehead, or in his hand,
Once received, how would they be able to repent of it ?
..
Matt 12:31-32 Blaspheme the HS - no option to repent
Rev 16:9-11 Blas the name of GOD - repent was an option ?? they refused
YET Paul himself was forgiven of BLASPHEMY
1 Tim 1:13 Who was before a blasphemer, and a persecutor, and injurious: but I obtained mercy, because I did it ignorantly in unbelief.
..

Today the only way I'm aware of that we can blas the HS is by hearing, understanding then rejecting what Christ did to save us from our sins.
If you believe there are other ways, can you list the verses that support your thoughts ?
 
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