God Commands Righteous Violence

[David Lamb]

It's never about what men say about God's word; it's about what God says about his word.

I agree. But saying that certain words and phrases in English have different meanings now to those they had in 1611 is not about what God says in His word, but about how that word is translated into English. Surely you are not saying that God can only express His word in 17th century English.

For I am the Lord, I change not; (Mal. 3)
Jesus Christ the same yesterday, and to day, and for ever. (Heb. 13)

Yes, that is about Jesus Christ being changeless, not the English language.

Further, when mere men change things, there is always a motive...

It is if they are changing the meaning of the original Hebrew and Greek words. If you insist on using phrases like "fetched a compass" when the Greek and Hebrew mean "turned around", then that is changing the meaning.

 

[doctrox]

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But saying that certain words and phrases in English have different meanings now to those they had in 1611 is not about what God says in His word, but about how that word is translated into English. Surely you are not saying that God can only express His word in 17th century English.

Rather than trusting man for his shifting definitions, trust God that he will answer you if only you would ask him. If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him. (James 1:5)

Yes, that is about Jesus Christ being changeless, not the English language.

It's about Jesus Christ being the Word:

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)

For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. (1 John 5:7)

And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God. (Rev. 19:13)

It is if they are changing the meaning of the original Hebrew and Greek words.

What "original"? God doesn't care about any so-called original.

Who gives understanding? Men, or God? To which do you turn, in your moment of need?
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[David Lamb]

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Rather than trusting man for his shifting definitions, trust God that he will answer you if only you would ask him. If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him. (James 1:5)

You seem to have missed the point I was making. When God gave His word, the Old Testament was in Hebrew, and the New Testament in Greek. So for the Bible to be available in any other language, like English, Mongolian, German or Icelandic, it must be translated. What is important is how accurately the translators render the meanings of the original Greek and Hebrew. Why should that be possible in 1611, but not (as you seem to be saying) in the English we use in the 21st century?

It's about Jesus Christ being the Word:

And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. (John 1:14)

For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. (1 John 5:7)

And he was clothed with a vesture dipped in blood: and his name is called The Word of God. (Rev. 19:13)


What "original"? God doesn't care about any so-called original.

Who gives understanding? Men, or God? To which do you turn, in your moment of need?
.

Yes of course it is God Who gives understanding. God could if He desired give understanding of His word without any translations. But He doesn't. He enables men to translate His word. Why did that have to stop (as far as English is concerned) in 1611? As for God not caring about the original, why would He not care about His word as originally given in Hebrew and Greek?